Dirac delta function definition

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SUMMARY

The Dirac delta function is defined by the integral property \(\int f(x) \delta(x-a) dx = f(a)\). In the context of electromagnetic theory, the expression \(\nabla \wedge B(\mathbf{r}) = \mu_0 \int_V dV' J(\mathbf{r'}) \delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'})\) simplifies to \(\nabla \wedge B(\mathbf{r}) = \mu_0 J(\mathbf{r})\) due to the symmetric property of the delta function, which allows \(\delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'})\) to be expressed as \(\delta(\mathbf{r'}-\mathbf{r})\). This symmetry is crucial for understanding how the delta function operates in integrals involving vector fields.

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  • Understanding of the Dirac delta function and its properties
  • Familiarity with vector calculus, specifically the curl operator
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic theory, particularly the role of current density
  • Basic proficiency in integral calculus
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latentcorpse
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By definition of the Dirac delta function, we have:

\int f(x) \delta(x-a) dx=f(a)

This is fair enough. But in ym notes there is a step that goes like the following:

\mathbf{\nabla} \wedge \mathbf{B}(\mathbf{r})=-\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int_V dV' \nabla^2(\frac{1}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|}) \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{r'}) = \mu_0 \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{r})

where we have used that \nabla^2(\frac{1}{|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}|}) =-4 \pi \delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'})

clearly the minus signs and the 4 \pi's cancel so it's now just

\mathbf{\nabla} \wedge \mathbf{B}(\mathbf{r})=\mu_0 \int_V dV' \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{r'}) \delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'})

i don't see how that goes from there to give \mu_0 \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{r}) as we are integrating with respect to V' are we not? and so i would assume that the delta function would need to be of the form \delta(\mathbf{r'}-\mathbf{r}) in order to give the desired answer.

the onnly explanation i can come up with is that \delta(\mathbf{r'}-\mathbf{r})=\delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}) since the delta function is symmetric about the spike. however the spike would be at different positions in these two cases. I'm kind of lost-any advice?
 
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latentcorpse said:
the onnly explanation i can come up with is that \delta(\mathbf{r'}-\mathbf{r})=\delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r'}) since the delta function is symmetric about the spike.

Yes, that's true.

however the spike would be at different positions in these two cases. I'm kind of lost-any advice?

No, the delta function has a spike whenever it's argument is zero. In both cases this occurs at r=r'.
 

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