Direction of an infinitesimal rotation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the direction of infinitesimal rotation in the context of magnetic dipoles, specifically using the torque equation ##\vec{\tau} = \vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}##. It establishes that the work done during rotation is dependent on the direction of the infinitesimal rotation vector ##d\vec{\theta}##, which must be opposite to the torque vector ##\vec{\tau}## for accurate results. The correct interpretation of the integral for work involves recognizing that ##d\vec{\theta}## should be aligned with the rotation's axis and opposite to the torque direction. The right-hand rule remains applicable, but the choice of direction for ##d\vec{\theta}## can lead to different interpretations of the angle measured.

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etotheipi
I had a question from the magnetic dipole thread that was posted earlier today, but it's a bit more mundane. The torque on a magnetic dipole, using a right handed cross product is ##\vec{\tau} = \vec{\mu} \times \vec{B}##. The work done during a rotation is $$W = \int \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{r} = \int \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{\theta} \times \vec{r} = \int \vec{r} \times \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{\theta} = \int \vec{\tau} \cdot d\vec{\theta}$$Now the result of this depends on which direction we take the vector ##d\vec{\theta}## to be in, and there is only one correct result for work! We know it has to be parallel to the axis of rotation, but get the right answer ##d\vec{\theta}## also has to be in the opposite direction to ##\vec{\tau}##, i.e. if ##\vec{\tau} = \tau \hat{z}## then ##d\vec{\theta} = -d\theta \hat{z}##.

My question is, in the general case, how is the direction of the infinitesimal rotation determined, out of the two possible choices? I apologise if I am missing something obvious.
 
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Dont you still follow the right hand rule? And the fact that the integral goes from one value of theta to and another value of theta.

When no limits are shown we assume the integral is positive and that the thetas range from low to high Ie counterclockwise.

Calling @fresh_42
 
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jedishrfu said:
Dont you still follow the right hand rule? And the fact that the integral goes from one value of theta to and another value of theta.

It's difficult for me to tell :wink:. If we take ##d\vec{\theta}## in the opposite direction to the torque then we get $$W = \int_{\theta_1}^{\theta_2} -\mu B \sin{\theta} d\theta$$and I suppose this choice of direction for ##d\vec{\theta}## would correspond to measuring the angle ##\theta## from ##\vec{B}## to ##\vec{\mu}##, as opposed to from ##\vec{\mu}## to ##\vec{B}##.
 
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