# Do 1/inf and 1000/inf have same limit of 0?

1. Jun 16, 2009

### hassman

The title says it all:

Do

$$\frac{1}{N} =$$ and $$\frac{1000}{N}$$ have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?

2. Jun 16, 2009

### CRGreathouse

Yes.

3. Jun 16, 2009

### hassman

ok :D ty

4. Jun 16, 2009

### HallsofIvy

No, the title does not say it all! the limit as N goes to infinity, of 1/N, is NOT the same as "1/infinity"! The latter simply makes no sense. You cannot do arithmetic with "infinity" in the real number system.

The answer to your question is "yes", however, those limits are both 0.