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Do 1/inf and 1000/inf have same limit of 0?

  1. Jun 16, 2009 #1
    The title says it all:

    Do

    [tex]\frac{1}{N} = [/tex] and [tex]\frac{1000}{N}[/tex] have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?
     
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  3. Jun 16, 2009 #2

    CRGreathouse

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  4. Jun 16, 2009 #3
    ok :D ty
     
  5. Jun 16, 2009 #4

    HallsofIvy

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    No, the title does not say it all! the limit as N goes to infinity, of 1/N, is NOT the same as "1/infinity"! The latter simply makes no sense. You cannot do arithmetic with "infinity" in the real number system.

    The answer to your question is "yes", however, those limits are both 0.
     
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