Do DIFFERENT observers see a DIFFERENT force on accelerating body?

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SUMMARY

In the context of special relativity, different observers in distinct inertial reference frames perceive different magnitudes of force acting on an accelerating body. This is due to the relativistic mass equation, m = m0/√(1-v^2/c^2), where 'v' varies for each observer. Consequently, while the acceleration may be recorded differently, the underlying principles of force and acceleration remain frame-variant, necessitating the use of Lorentz transformations to accurately describe these variations.

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  • Understanding of special relativity concepts
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  • Knowledge of relativistic mass and its implications
  • Basic grasp of Newton's laws of motion
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skunkswks
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Hi, my question in full; Do DIFFERENT observers (in different INERTIAL reference frames) see a DIFFERENT force (Magnitude specifically) acting on an accelerating body?

I believe yes . Because... :

ƩF = d(p)/d(t) = m*a + v * d(m)/d(t)
where m = m0/√(1-v^2/c^2)

where v is different for every observer in a different inertial reference frame?

Hence, people in different reference frames 'see' a different force
Hence they also record different measurements for acceleration of the body? or does the acceleartion always agree and they record different measurements for the mass of the body w.r. to their own reference frame?

How correct is all this?
Thank you in advance.
 
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skunkswks said:
Hi, my question in full; Do DIFFERENT observers (in different INERTIAL reference frames) see a DIFFERENT force (Magnitude specifically) acting on an accelerating body?

I believe yes . Because... :

ƩF = d(p)/d(t) = m*a + v * d(m)/d(t)
where m = m0/√(1-v^2/c^2)

where v is different for every observer in a different inertial reference frame?

Hence, people in different reference frames 'see' a different force
Hence they also record different measurements for acceleration of the body? or does the acceleartion always agree and they record different measurements for the mass of the body w.r. to their own reference frame?

How correct is all this?
Thank you in advance.

You are correct on both accounts, both force and acceleration are frame-variant in relativity. There are specific Lorentz transforms for each of them.
 

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