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newbie12321
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- Why is there no constraint on the component of velocities parallel to the contact surface?
There’s a rigid rod pushing on a wedge. Velocity of the rod is v, which is vertically downwards, and the wedge is sliding to the right as a result with a velocity u. There is zero friction on the surface of the wedge and the surface of the rod in contact with the wedge.
According to wedge constraint relations, if the rod stays in contact with the wedge, then its relative velocity with respect to the wedge perpendicular to the contact surface must be zero. It means velocity of the rod and the wedge perpendicular to the contact surface must be equal, i.e
vcosθ = usinθ
My question is, what about their velocities parallel to the contact surface? Is there no constraint on their velocities parallel to the contact surface if both the rod and the wedge have to stay in contact?
If their relative velocity parallel to the contact surface is non-zero, the rod will keep sliding down the wedge, won’t it lose contact with the wedge after it reaches the bottom? Likewise, if the rod were sliding up the wedge, won’t it lose contact when it finally comes off the top of the wedge? Hope I am able to explain what I want to understand. Is it because the wedge doesn’t extend infinitely? This is something I am not able to understand. Please help me with it. I have attached a picture. Thanks
*Edit : Angle of inclination of the wedge is θ, not α
According to wedge constraint relations, if the rod stays in contact with the wedge, then its relative velocity with respect to the wedge perpendicular to the contact surface must be zero. It means velocity of the rod and the wedge perpendicular to the contact surface must be equal, i.e
vcosθ = usinθ
My question is, what about their velocities parallel to the contact surface? Is there no constraint on their velocities parallel to the contact surface if both the rod and the wedge have to stay in contact?
If their relative velocity parallel to the contact surface is non-zero, the rod will keep sliding down the wedge, won’t it lose contact with the wedge after it reaches the bottom? Likewise, if the rod were sliding up the wedge, won’t it lose contact when it finally comes off the top of the wedge? Hope I am able to explain what I want to understand. Is it because the wedge doesn’t extend infinitely? This is something I am not able to understand. Please help me with it. I have attached a picture. Thanks
*Edit : Angle of inclination of the wedge is θ, not α
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