- #1

jaketsi

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Hi folks!First of all, English is not my native language so I hope there is not much misleading spelling mistakes, discrepancies and inaccuracy.

I’m currently working with a hobby-project of a flying drone/UAV with two adjustable angled rotors. I’m able to make it fly more or less in a way it is supposed but the physics behind all is partly blur.

More precisely angular momentum, conservation of it, precession, etc…

I have an example which I use to try to understand things correctly. It includes some assumptions and simplifications(no friction, no drag) since the very basics are what I’m into at this moment.

The system has a horizontal rod which midpoint is attached with bearing to a base below. So the rod is able to rotate about the base. Main coordinate is fixed and attached to the base. Propellers are mounted to the both ends of that rod. Behind the link there is a picture of the initial situation => http://kuva.termiitti.com/v.php?img=38304

http://kuva.termiitti.com/image/38304.jpg

At the initial state the rotor A is rotating about z-axis with angular velocity of 100 rad/s (clockwise from top view). Rotor B rotates at same amount of angular velocity, but to opposite direction. Rod is still without angular velocity to any direction.

Mass moment of inertia of both rotors is 0.001 kgm^2.

So now angular momentums of rotors are,

Rotor A: Lza = -0.10 Nms

Rotor B: Lzb = 0.10 Nms

Since the rod is still, angular momentum of the whole system about z-axis is zero.

I think this is correct so far?

At the second state rotor A is turned 60 degrees about the x-axis pointing now mainly to right http://kuva.termiitti.com/v.php?img=38305.

http://kuva.termiitti.com/image/38305.jpg

During this turn, system’s angular momentum about z-axis is about to chance. In this case, about to differ from zero.

Since angular momentum has a tendency to remain the same, rod now has to start rotating clockwise. The amount of angular momentum rod have to compensate is half of the one rotors angular momentum (angle was 60 deg), being -0.05 Nms.

I hope I’m still on the beam…?

System’s mass moment of inertia is 0.02 kgm^2 when it is rotating around it’s mid point. (for simplicity, inertia and centre of mass of the system won’t chance even the rotor has moved)

This means, that angular velocity of the rod will be -0.05 Nms / 0.02 kgm^2 = -2.5 rad/s.

Is this correct?

But now, because of the new position of rotor A, there is also angular momentum parallel to the rod. Direction of this momentum in a fixed main coordinate of course chance over time, but the amount of it remains the same being sin(60 deg)*0.10 Nms = 0.087 Nms.

What torque generated this? I guess the torque that turned the axis of rotor A to new angle.

Let’s say axis of rotor A turns that 60 degrees in 0.1 seconds. That is about 10 rad/s. How is this related to other velocities and momentums?

The power needed to turn rotor A axis is unknown and also the inertia of rotor/rotor’s axis -system is unknown when it rotates around the pivot point at the and of the rod so I can’t say what is the force or torque which is needed. How should I think this?

Because physics book says that angular momentum = torque*time, I am forced to think that since the amount of angular momentum of the system is increased by 0.087 Nms, the torque turning rotor A’s axis must be 0.087 Nms / 0.1 s = 0.87 Nm. (I’m pretty sure this is wrong thinking)

Maybe I stop thinking and reasoning for now and wait if you have something to say. Is there something that I have understood totally wrong? Is there something else I should take into consideration?edit: pictures added

I’m currently working with a hobby-project of a flying drone/UAV with two adjustable angled rotors. I’m able to make it fly more or less in a way it is supposed but the physics behind all is partly blur.

More precisely angular momentum, conservation of it, precession, etc…

I have an example which I use to try to understand things correctly. It includes some assumptions and simplifications(no friction, no drag) since the very basics are what I’m into at this moment.

The system has a horizontal rod which midpoint is attached with bearing to a base below. So the rod is able to rotate about the base. Main coordinate is fixed and attached to the base. Propellers are mounted to the both ends of that rod. Behind the link there is a picture of the initial situation => http://kuva.termiitti.com/v.php?img=38304

http://kuva.termiitti.com/image/38304.jpg

At the initial state the rotor A is rotating about z-axis with angular velocity of 100 rad/s (clockwise from top view). Rotor B rotates at same amount of angular velocity, but to opposite direction. Rod is still without angular velocity to any direction.

Mass moment of inertia of both rotors is 0.001 kgm^2.

So now angular momentums of rotors are,

Rotor A: Lza = -0.10 Nms

Rotor B: Lzb = 0.10 Nms

Since the rod is still, angular momentum of the whole system about z-axis is zero.

I think this is correct so far?

At the second state rotor A is turned 60 degrees about the x-axis pointing now mainly to right http://kuva.termiitti.com/v.php?img=38305.

http://kuva.termiitti.com/image/38305.jpg

During this turn, system’s angular momentum about z-axis is about to chance. In this case, about to differ from zero.

Since angular momentum has a tendency to remain the same, rod now has to start rotating clockwise. The amount of angular momentum rod have to compensate is half of the one rotors angular momentum (angle was 60 deg), being -0.05 Nms.

I hope I’m still on the beam…?

System’s mass moment of inertia is 0.02 kgm^2 when it is rotating around it’s mid point. (for simplicity, inertia and centre of mass of the system won’t chance even the rotor has moved)

This means, that angular velocity of the rod will be -0.05 Nms / 0.02 kgm^2 = -2.5 rad/s.

Is this correct?

But now, because of the new position of rotor A, there is also angular momentum parallel to the rod. Direction of this momentum in a fixed main coordinate of course chance over time, but the amount of it remains the same being sin(60 deg)*0.10 Nms = 0.087 Nms.

What torque generated this? I guess the torque that turned the axis of rotor A to new angle.

Let’s say axis of rotor A turns that 60 degrees in 0.1 seconds. That is about 10 rad/s. How is this related to other velocities and momentums?

The power needed to turn rotor A axis is unknown and also the inertia of rotor/rotor’s axis -system is unknown when it rotates around the pivot point at the and of the rod so I can’t say what is the force or torque which is needed. How should I think this?

Because physics book says that angular momentum = torque*time, I am forced to think that since the amount of angular momentum of the system is increased by 0.087 Nms, the torque turning rotor A’s axis must be 0.087 Nms / 0.1 s = 0.87 Nm. (I’m pretty sure this is wrong thinking)

Maybe I stop thinking and reasoning for now and wait if you have something to say. Is there something that I have understood totally wrong? Is there something else I should take into consideration?edit: pictures added

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