Does a unitary matrix have such property?

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of unitary matrices, specifically examining the implications of a matrix \( V \) being involutive (i.e., \( V^2 = U \) for a unitary matrix \( U \)). Participants explore whether the condition \( V^\dagger V = VV^\dagger = I \) holds true and attempt to prove or disprove this statement.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant infers that if \( U \) is a unitary matrix and \( V^2 = U \), then \( V^\dagger V = VV^\dagger = I \) should hold true, but struggles to prove it.
  • Another participant asserts that the statement is not true, providing counterexamples of involutive matrices that are not unitarily diagonalizable.
  • Explicit examples of matrices are provided to illustrate the counterexamples, including a triangular matrix and a blocked matrix construction.
  • Participants discuss the implications of diagonalizability and the conditions under which the properties of unitary matrices apply.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; there are competing views regarding the validity of the initial inference about unitary matrices and the conditions under which the properties hold.

Contextual Notes

Some limitations are noted, such as the dependence on definitions of diagonalizability and the specific forms of matrices discussed. The discussion highlights the complexity of proving properties related to unitary matrices and the nuances involved in matrix operations.

Haorong Wu
Messages
419
Reaction score
90
TL;DR
I need prove a property of unitary matrices, but without success.
Hi. I'm learning Quantum Calculation. There is a section about controlled operations on multiple qubits. The textbook doesn't express explicitly but I can infer the following statement:

If ##U## is a unitary matrix, and ##V^2=U##, then ## V^ \dagger V=V V ^ \dagger=I##.

I had hard time proving it. I only can prove that if ##V## is reversible, then ##\left (V^ \dagger V \right ) \left ( V V ^ \dagger \right )=I##.

I hope the statement is true, otherwise my inference would be wrong.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Haorong Wu said:
Summary: I need prove a property of unitary matrices, but without success...

If ##U## is a unitary matrix, and ##V^2=U##, then ## V^ \dagger V=V V ^ \dagger=I##...

It isn't true. Any involutive ##V## that isn't unitarily diagonalizable serves as a counterexample. Using blocked matrices, you can build up more complicated counterexamples from here.
 
Last edited:
StoneTemplePython said:
It isn't true. Any involutive ##V## that isn't unitarily diagonalizable serves as a counterexample. Using blocked matrices, you can build up more complicated counterexamples from here.
Thanks, StoneTemplePython. I have to review my inference. I must make some mistakes.
 
Haorong Wu said:
Thanks, StoneTemplePython. I have to review my inference. I must make some mistakes.

for an explicit example of this, consider
##\mathbf S = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 1 & 1\\0 & 1 & 1\\0 & 0 & 1\end{matrix}\right]##
## \mathbf D = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & 0\\0 & 1 & 0\\0 & 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##

and
##\mathbf V = \mathbf{SDS}^{-1} = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & -2\\0 & 1 & -2\\0 & 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##

you have

##\mathbf V^2 = \mathbf I = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & 0\\0 & 1 & 0\\0 & 0 & 1\end{matrix}\right]##

but

##\mathbf I \neq \mathbf V^* \mathbf V = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & -2\\0 & 1 & -2\\-2 & -2 & 9\end{matrix}\right] \neq \left[\begin{matrix}5 & 4 & 2\\4 & 5 & 2\\2 & 2 & 1\end{matrix}\right] = \mathbf {VV}^*##
- - - -
an even easier counter example would be to just eyeball
##\left[\begin{matrix}1 & c\\ 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##
for some ##c \neq 0##
it is diagonalizable and all eigenvalues are -1 or +1, so when you square the matrix you get the identity matrix (which is unitary). But a Triangular matrix commutes with its conjugate transpose iff it is diagonal -- it would require ##c =0## here. This is a standard result for normal matrices and something worth proving to yourself.
 
StoneTemplePython said:
for an explicit example of this, consider
##\mathbf S = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 1 & 1\\0 & 1 & 1\\0 & 0 & 1\end{matrix}\right]##
## \mathbf D = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & 0\\0 & 1 & 0\\0 & 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##

and
##\mathbf V = \mathbf{SDS}^{-1} = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & -2\\0 & 1 & -2\\0 & 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##

you have

##\mathbf V^2 = \mathbf I = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & 0\\0 & 1 & 0\\0 & 0 & 1\end{matrix}\right]##

but

##\mathbf I \neq \mathbf V^* \mathbf V = \left[\begin{matrix}1 & 0 & -2\\0 & 1 & -2\\-2 & -2 & 9\end{matrix}\right] \neq \left[\begin{matrix}5 & 4 & 2\\4 & 5 & 2\\2 & 2 & 1\end{matrix}\right] = \mathbf {VV}^*##
- - - -
an even easier counter example would be to just eyeball
##\left[\begin{matrix}1 & c\\ 0 & -1\end{matrix}\right]##
for some ##c \neq 0##
it is diagonalizable and all eigenvalues are -1 or +1, so when you square the matrix you get the identity matrix (which is unitary). But a Triangular matrix commutes with its conjugate transpose iff it is diagonal -- it would require ##c =0## here. This is a standard result for normal matrices and something worth proving to yourself.

Thanks, StoneTemplePython, with those detailed examples.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K