Does (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 Imply Commutativity in Group G?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of the equation (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 in the context of group theory, specifically whether this condition implies that the group G is commutative.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the meaning of the equation (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 and question whether it leads to the conclusion that the group is abelian. Some participants express confusion over the implications of the original poster's reasoning and the use of the identity element e.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the assumptions behind the equation and its implications. Some participants provide feedback on the clarity of the original poster's statements, while others suggest that the proof may require additional context or clarification.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenges of understanding the proof due to the complexity of the material and the limitations of the textbook being used. There is also mention of difficulties in accessing direct help from the professor.

Benzoate
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Homework Statement



Prove that if (ab)^2=a^2*b^2, in a group G, then ab =ba

Homework Equations


No equations necessary for this proof

The Attempt at a Solution



Suppose (ab)^2=a^2*b^2. Then (ab)^2=(ab)(ab)=(abba)=(ab^2*a)=a^2 *b^2=> (ab)(ba)=(ba)(ab) = e

By cancellation, (ab)=(ba) <=> (ba)=(ab)
 
Last edited:
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If (ab)^2=a^2b^2 what? Is the group commutative? Then this holds, for all a and b.

I think the question is supposed to be posed as thus: Suppose G is an abelian group. Then for any a and b in G we have (ab)^2=a^2b^2 .

This is fairly straightforward, and you almost had it. If you hadn't written anything after a^2 *b^2 you would've been done. Everything after that is nonsense. Why was e invoked?

Are you self-learning algebra, by any chance?
 
ZioX said:
If (ab)^2=a^2b^2 what? Is the group commutative? Then this holds, for all a and b.

I think the question is supposed to be posed as thus: Suppose G is an abelian group. Then for any a and b in G we have (ab)^2=a^2b^2 .

This is fairly straightforward, and you almost had it. If you hadn't written anything after a^2 *b^2 you would've been done. Everything after that is nonsense. Why was e invoked?

Are you self-learning algebra, by any chance?

No, but with my class schedule , its almost impossible to meet my professor for extra help during his office hours. In addition, the textbook (contemporary abstract algebra by joseph gallian ) doesn't do a good job of showing each part of the proof , step by step. Someone once said that in order to be good proof writer , you have to read and observe a lot of proof , just as a good writer has to read a lot of books. the textbooks does have examples , but you are expected to connect the dots for the proof.
 
ZioX said:
If (ab)^2=a^2b^2 what? Is the group commutative? Then this holds, for all a and b.

I think the question is supposed to be posed as thus: Suppose G is an abelian group. Then for any a and b in G we have (ab)^2=a^2b^2 .

This is fairly straightforward, and you almost had it. If you hadn't written anything after a^2 *b^2 you would've been done. Everything after that is nonsense. Why was e invoked?

Are you self-learning algebra, by any chance?
What do you mean I almost had it if I did not write anything after a^2*b^2 ? I barely wrote anything before I wrote a^2 *b^2. a^2*b^2 was only an assumption that had to be made for the proof
 
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Benzoate said:

Homework Statement



Prove that if (ab)^2=a^2*b^2

Hi Benzoate,

Do you agree that this sentence is incomplete?
 
Benzoate said:

Homework Statement



Prove that if (ab)^2=a^2*b^2

If that then what? Is the rest of that sentence supposed to be that if this is true in a group then the group is abelian?

Benzoate said:

The Attempt at a Solution



Suppose (ab)^2=a^2*b^2. Then (ab)^2=(ab)(ab)=(abba)=(ab^2*a)=a^2 *b^2=> (ab)(ba)=(ba)(ab) = e

By cancellation, (ab)=(ba) <=> (ba)=(ab)

(ab)(ab) is not equal to (abba) unless the group is abelian, which I suspect is what you are trying to prove, so you cannot assume this.
 
I thought I had posted this before.

In any group, it is easy to prove that (ab)-1= b-1a-1.
You are given that (ab)-1= a-1b-1. In other words, since the inverse is unique, a-1b-1= b-1a-1. You should be able to manipulate that to get ab= ba.
 
quasar987 said:
Hi Benzoate,

Do you agree that this sentence is incomplete?

yes. sorry about that
 

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