Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the radius of convergence for the Taylor series of the functions sin(x) and e^x. Participants are exploring the application of the ratio test in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the ratio test and question how it applies to the coefficients of the Taylor series for e^x and sin(x). There is confusion regarding the results obtained from applying the ratio test, particularly concerning the limit leading to |e|.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided hints regarding the correct application of the ratio test to the Taylor series coefficients. There is ongoing exploration of the implications of the limits calculated, with some participants expressing confusion and seeking clarification.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the radius of convergence being from -infinity to +infinity, but this is under discussion and not universally accepted within the thread. Participants are also navigating through potential misunderstandings about the series terms used in their calculations.

blursotong
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[sloved]Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

We know that to find radius of convergence we use ratio test (ie lim {a_n+1} /{a_n})
Can this method be used for sin x and e^x? ( whose radius of convergence is -infinity and infinity)
if radius of convergence is -infinity<x< infinity right? it means when we use ratio test the result is zero?

but we see for e^x,
i get |e| when using ratio test, which implies that it diverge?

Im confused. Can anyone can help?
thanks.
 
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You are very confused. You have to use the ratio test on the coefficients of the Taylor series for e^x and sin(x). How do you get |e| for e^x?
 
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??
 
blursotong said:
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??

No, use the general term in whatever series you're investigating. For ex, the Maclaurin series is
[tex]\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}[/tex]
 
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??
 
blursotong said:
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??

That's it. If you meant to write x^(n+1) in the numerator instead of (x+1)^n.
 
opps..haha..yup..
thanks a lot for your help!
anw, can you help me in another multiple integration question too?
no one replied yet=(
 

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