Does the Series ∑ n*sin(1/n) from n=1 to Infinity Converge?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series ∑ n*sin(1/n) from n=1 to infinity. Participants are exploring the behavior of the series and the implications of the terms as n approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants consider using the squeeze theorem and Taylor series to analyze the series. There are questions about whether the general term approaches zero as n increases, and discussions about the implications of this behavior for convergence.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different approaches to determine convergence, with some participants suggesting specific tests and others questioning the assumptions made. Feedback has been shared, indicating that the discussion is productive, though no consensus has been reached regarding the convergence of the series.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the series is not alternating and emphasize the importance of checking the limit of the terms as n approaches infinity. There is a mention of a general formula related to sin(x) as x approaches zero, which may influence the analysis.

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Homework Statement



Does the series infinity n(sin(1/n)) converge?
E
n=1



Homework Equations



n

and

sin(1/n)



The Attempt at a Solution



The equation sin(1/n) looks familiar, maybe i could use the squeeze theorem?

something like -1 <= sin(1/n) <= 1

i'm not sure where to go after this though, or if I'm even on the right track?
please help.
thankyou.
 
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First check:
Does the general term go to zero as n goes to infinity?
 
Yes You could use the squeeze theorem and get -|x|< sin(1/x) < |x|, but that doesn't seem the help you much. Do what arildno said, maybe a few other convergence tests, try using Taylor Series? I'd say it does, but can't show you right now.
 
Since this is not an alternating series, then only answering the question posed by Arildno is enough to solve the problem.

Daniel.
 
There is a general formula: as x approaches 0, (sin x)/x approaches 1. So you can apply this in your question. Let n=1/x, then you modify the equation, then you will get the answer that the series diverge, since the series does not have a sum.
 
read next post.
 
Last edited:
arildno said:
First check:
Does the general term go to zero as n goes to infinity?

yes. i would say as n goes to infinity, it approaches 0.
the reasoning is because starting with small numbers it gets larger around .01745...

don't know where to go from here.

thanks for all the feedback, i found it all useful.
 
rcmango said:
yes. i would say as n goes to infinity, it approaches 0.
the reasoning is because starting with small numbers it gets larger around .01745...

don't know where to go from here.

thanks for all the feedback, i found it all useful.

Numbers at a certain point don't really tell you much about the behavior at infinity. Take the limit of the terms as n goes to infinity, if it isn't 0 what can you say about the series?
 
d_leet said:
Numbers at a certain point don't really tell you much about the behavior at infinity. Take the limit of the terms as n goes to infinity, if it isn't 0 what can you say about the series?

that it diverges.
 
  • #10
rcmango said:
that it diverges.

yes it does
 

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