Does this function belong to an interesting class of functions?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the function f(φ) = (1 - φ) / (φ - 1) and its classification within known mathematical functions. Participants explore whether this function has applications in modeling situations or if it can be transformed into a more interesting function. The conversation touches on the nature of the function, its characteristics, and potential connections to other mathematical concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that the function simplifies to -1 except at φ = 1, where it is discontinuous.
  • Another participant suggests a connection to Mobius transformations, which may have interesting applications, particularly in complex numbers.
  • A participant proposes a conceptual analogy involving a spinning sphere and the behavior of the function at φ = 1.
  • Some participants challenge the idea of redefining the function's value at φ = 1, emphasizing the distinction between different definitions of functions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the function's behavior at φ = 1 and whether it can be redefined in a meaningful way. There is no consensus on the implications of the function or its classification.

Contextual Notes

The discussion reveals limitations in defining the function at φ = 1 and the implications of discontinuity. There are unresolved questions regarding the applicability of Mobius transformations in real number contexts.

PhilDSP
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Hello and thanks for your consideration,

I'd like some insight into the function [itex]f(\phi) = \frac {1 - \phi}{\phi - 1}[/itex]

Does this apply to any known modeling situations? Is it recognized as belonging to a more general class of functions that may have interesting or unique characteristics? Or can the function be transformed into a function that does?
 
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Your function, as written, is just equal to -1, except when [itex]\phi = 1[/itex], where there is a discontinuity because the denominator vanishes there.

If you want an example of a function that has a similar form but isn't trivially some constant and has some applications, see Mobius transformation. (But note that the Mobius transformation is usually used with complex numbers. I don't know if it is used much in real number applications).
 
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Thanks, an association with the Mobius transformation does yield many interesting things to think about, especially since [itex]\phi[/itex] can be complex in the situation where the function popped up.

We could argue that the value becomes 1 when [itex]\phi = 1[/itex] couldn't we? This almost sounds like a spinning sphere where the axis must be aligned parallel to a force acting on the sphere, but which can suddenly undergo a spin flip.
 
PhilDSP said:
We could argue that the value becomes 1 when [itex]\phi = 1[/itex] couldn't we?

No, you can't define a function one way and then argue that it has a different definition. You can, however, define a function that is 1 when [itex]\phi = 1[/itex] and equal to -1 elsewhere. You can argue that this definition applies to a certain practical situation. That would be an argument about physics.
 
PhilDSP said:
We could argue that the value becomes 1 when [itex]\phi = 1[/itex] couldn't we?

No. "f(x)= -1" and "g(x)= -1 if [itex]x\ne 1[/itex], and is not defined at [itex]x= 1[/itex]" are two different functions.
 

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