- #1

- 104

- 0

## Main Question or Discussion Point

Just wondering...

If the dot product of the acceleration and velocity vectors is zero, then does v

If this is true, is it possible to prove it? If the statement is false, is it possible to prove that as well?

If the dot product of the acceleration and velocity vectors is zero, then does v

^{2}/r = 0 have to be true?If this is true, is it possible to prove it? If the statement is false, is it possible to prove that as well?