Hak
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Speaking of variable mass systems... it seems to me that there is a flaw in Halliday's reasoning when he talks about this subject. But the formula he derives seems to work to me!
He starts with a system of points of total mass \ M and cm velocity \ v. Due to the action of external forces after a certain time t the system has clearly split into two parts. The first has mass \ M -\Delta M and cm velocity \ v +\Delta v; the second has mass \Delta M and velocity \ u.
Applying F_{est} = \frac{\Delta P}{\Delta t} finds that for a finite interval of time it holds (approximately)
\ F_{est} = M \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} + [u-(v+\Delta v)]\frac{\Delta M}{\Delta t}.
Moving on to the limit for t tending to 0
replaces \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} with \frac{dv}{dt}
replaces \frac{\Delta M}{\Delta t} with -\frac{dM}{dt}
places \Delta v = 0.
Thus \ F_{est} = M \frac{dv}{dt} + v \frac{dM}{dt} -u \frac{dM}{dt}.
But shouldn't it have taken into account that \ u also goes to zero (or at least changes) for t that tends to zero?
Am I wrong in making such an assumption or am I right? Thanks in advance.
He starts with a system of points of total mass \ M and cm velocity \ v. Due to the action of external forces after a certain time t the system has clearly split into two parts. The first has mass \ M -\Delta M and cm velocity \ v +\Delta v; the second has mass \Delta M and velocity \ u.
Applying F_{est} = \frac{\Delta P}{\Delta t} finds that for a finite interval of time it holds (approximately)
\ F_{est} = M \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} + [u-(v+\Delta v)]\frac{\Delta M}{\Delta t}.
Moving on to the limit for t tending to 0
replaces \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} with \frac{dv}{dt}
replaces \frac{\Delta M}{\Delta t} with -\frac{dM}{dt}
places \Delta v = 0.
Thus \ F_{est} = M \frac{dv}{dt} + v \frac{dM}{dt} -u \frac{dM}{dt}.
But shouldn't it have taken into account that \ u also goes to zero (or at least changes) for t that tends to zero?
Am I wrong in making such an assumption or am I right? Thanks in advance.
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