(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); E=mc^2 proof. Why use Newtonian kinetic energy???

In "Does the Inertia of a Body Depend Upon its Energy-Content?" Einstein says that the difference in kinetic energy of a body before and after it releases some energy is...

K(0)-K(1)=E(gamma-1)

In his previous paper, he worked out the kinetic energy of masses as...

K=mc^{2}(gamma-1)

Can't we immediately compare the two equations and conclude that E=mc^2? Why does Einstein bother converting the first equation above into

K(0)-K(1)=(1/2)(E/c^{2})v^{2}

? It seems to me that this is a less precise method since he had to neglect magnitudes of fourth and higher order to get it.

**I know that me writing out gamma looks really dumb but I was having trouble with Latex.

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# E=mc^2 proof. Why use Newtonian kinetic energy?

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