asdf1 Messages 734 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Nov 29, 2005 #1 why does e^[i(phi)] * e^[-i(phi)]=1 instead of e^[(phi)^2]?
TD Homework Helper Messages 1,016 Reaction score 0 Nov 29, 2005 #2 Well for powers, so for e-powers in particular, we have that [itex]e^a \cdot e^b = e^{a + b}[/itex]. Applying that here gives e^0 which is of course 1.
Well for powers, so for e-powers in particular, we have that [itex]e^a \cdot e^b = e^{a + b}[/itex]. Applying that here gives e^0 which is of course 1.