jdinatale
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I'm having difficulty deducing that Re z = 0.
The discussion revolves around a problem in elementary algebra of complex variables, specifically focusing on the condition that the real part of a complex number z is equal to zero.
Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering insights and corrections. Some guidance has been provided regarding the nature of the expressions involved, but there remains uncertainty about the proof that Re(z) equals zero.
There are indications of confusion regarding the calculations and assumptions made in the problem, particularly concerning the interpretation of complex numbers and their properties.
vela said:Try multiplying the top and bottom by (1-w*).
oay said:Sorry for butting in, but although I can see where jdinatale went wrong in his last post, I still can't see how Re(z) can be proved to be zero.
Of course it's correct, but I can't quite see it.
How does it?Dick said:The calculation shows z is pure imaginary
oay said:How does it?
Sorry, I'm probably being very thick here and will live to regret it.
How does
[tex]z = (1 + \omega) / (1 - \omega)[/tex]
where [itex]\omega = e^{ik\pi/50}[/itex]
imply that [itex]z[/itex] is purely imaginary?
Like I say, I know it's correct to say so, but I'm lost on how to prove it - even after trying using the conjugate method as offered above.
It'll probably be a face-palm moment when I find out...
Ha-ha! I was right!Dick said:Look at what happens when jdinatale multiplies by (1+w*). The results has w-w* (which is pure imaginary) in the numerator and w+w* (which is pure real) in the denominator. What kind of a number is imaginary/real?
