EMF induced by a magnet falling through a coil

AI Thread Summary
When a magnet falls through a coil, the induced electromotive force (emf) and magnetic flux behave in distinct ways. The emf is zero when the magnet is centered in the coil because the opposing flux changes cancel each other out, despite the effective flux being at its maximum. As the magnet exits the coil, the effective flux becomes negative due to the greater contribution from the top half of the magnet. The induced emf is determined by the rate of change of flux, not the total flux itself, which is crucial for understanding the relationship between the two. This discussion emphasizes the importance of visualizing the flux dynamics to grasp the underlying physics.
zee123
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
How will the flux and emf graphs look like for a magnet that falls freely through a coil
Relevant Equations
E= -NBA/time taken , flux=BA
I've been told that if you drop a magnet through a coil the induced emf and flux graphs would look like this:
1615028265880.png

I understand that when the bar magnet is in the middle of the coil the emf induced is zero as flux change in top and bottom is in opposite directions but why is effective flux maximum when emf induced is zero, shouldn't the effective flux be zero as well? And, in the second half of the magnets jounery shouldn't the effective flux be negative as more of the flux linkage is contributed by the top half of the magnet when it is leaving the coil?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
A better definition for the induced emf would be ##E=-\frac{d\Phi}{dt}##. Check with this one.
 
Since,as Gordianus says, the emf depends on the rate of change of flux linkage, it can help to think of the emf graph as the gradient of the flux graph (but remembering the negative sign).
 
Or you can view the bottom graph as the integral over time of the top graph (still remembering the negative sign).
 
I hope this might provide a bit of physical/geometrical insight, to complement the mathematical insights from the other answers.

Remember it is the rate of change of flux, not the amount flux, which determines the induced emf.

Look at these diagrams:

Magnet.jpg

Fig. 1 shows the field (lines of flux) around a bar magnet. I haven’t put arrows on but you easily add them mentally if you want.

Fig. 2 shows only the lines of flux. Note each is actually a complete loop and each loop passes through the magnet.

Fig. 3 shows the lines of flux with the magnet just above the coil (sides of coil shown in red). Note there are only 2 lines of flux inside the coil. A small movement down will quickly increase this number, giving a large induced emf.

Fig. 4 shows the lines of flux with the magnet centred on the coil’s centre. There are now 8 lines of flux (maximum) inside the coil’s area. A small movement down will not change this number. So the induced emf = 0 even though the flux is maximum.

(As an additional note, if the there were a complete flux loop inside the coil it wouild have zero contribution to the net flux through the coil - because the upwards section cancels the downwards section.)

Hope that all makes sense.
Magnet.jpg
 
Thread 'Variable mass system : water sprayed into a moving container'
Starting with the mass considerations #m(t)# is mass of water #M_{c}# mass of container and #M(t)# mass of total system $$M(t) = M_{C} + m(t)$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{dM(t)}{dt} = \frac{dm(t)}{dt}$$ $$P_i = Mv + u \, dm$$ $$P_f = (M + dm)(v + dv)$$ $$\Delta P = M \, dv + (v - u) \, dm$$ $$F = \frac{dP}{dt} = M \frac{dv}{dt} + (v - u) \frac{dm}{dt}$$ $$F = u \frac{dm}{dt} = \rho A u^2$$ from conservation of momentum , the cannon recoils with the same force which it applies. $$\quad \frac{dm}{dt}...
Thread 'Minimum mass of a block'
Here we know that if block B is going to move up or just be at the verge of moving up ##Mg \sin \theta ## will act downwards and maximum static friction will act downwards ## \mu Mg \cos \theta ## Now what im confused by is how will we know " how quickly" block B reaches its maximum static friction value without any numbers, the suggested solution says that when block A is at its maximum extension, then block B will start to move up but with a certain set of values couldn't block A reach...
Back
Top