Equivalent Force couple to single resultant

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a single offset resultant that accounts for a force and a couple in a 2D plane. Participants explore methods to reduce a force-couple system to an equivalent resultant, addressing the complexities of determining the location of the resultant's line of action.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a force vector and a couple, seeking to find the resultant that incorporates the couple.
  • Another participant suggests choosing a point where one component of the force has zero moment to simplify the calculation of the resultant's location.
  • There is a question raised about the existence of multiple correct solutions in this context.
  • A clarification is provided that the resultant can be represented at different locations depending on the reference point used, indicating that multiple solutions may exist but yield the same physical outcome.
  • One participant acknowledges a misunderstanding due to an edit in the original post, indicating the evolving nature of the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of the solutions, with some suggesting that multiple correct solutions exist based on the reference point, while others seek clarification on this point. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of these multiple solutions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the geometry of the force-couple system and the choice of reference points, which may affect the interpretation of the resultant's location and the calculations involved.

triindiglo
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I have reduced the problem involving different forces and a couple in a 2D plane to an equivalent force-couple system. The force F is -27.5lbi + 11.65lbj, and the couple is -66.8inlbk.
I need the single offset resultant that accounts for the couple.

The way I thought to solve it was to take the couple and set it equal to r (unknown xi +yj) crossed with the force. But this gives me two unknowns with one equation, and I don't know where to go from here.

Thanks!
 
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You could pick a point where one of the components of the force will have zero moment, and equal the product of the lever arm and component with moment respect to said point to the magnitude of the couple, then repeat by reversing the components. You'll end up with an x and y which will give the location of the force vector line of action with respect to the point as it were your origin. If you divide both magnitude of force and couple, you'll get the lever arm from said point to the force line of action.
 
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So there is more than one correct solution?
 
triindiglo said:
So there is more than one correct solution?

What I meant is your resultant at a certain location will account for the couple. It'll be a resultant system (no couple) which is what you are looking for, no?.

Coplanar resultant-couple systems can always be reduced to a resultant acting on a certain location with respect to the point where you reduced the system. This is because the couple and the resultant will always be normal in this case.

This means the line of action of the resultant will be in the same place regardless of the point of reference (origin or where you did the moments for the resultant-couple system reduction) you used, so "more than one correct solution" means same place but with different points of reference.
 
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I apparently read your first post before you edited it or something, so I was talking about something else. The edited one clarified it for me though.

Thanks
 
triindiglo said:
I apparently read your first post before you edited it or something, so I was talking about something else. The edited one clarified it for me though.

Thanks

Great!, and Welcome to PF! :smile:
 

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