royzizzle Messages 48 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 4, 2008 #1 explain why an estimate of intergal(f(x)) from 0 to .5 using the first 2 nonzero terms of its taylor approximation differs from the actual value of this integral by less than 1/200
explain why an estimate of intergal(f(x)) from 0 to .5 using the first 2 nonzero terms of its taylor approximation differs from the actual value of this integral by less than 1/200
HallsofIvy Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 42,895 Reaction score 983 Apr 4, 2008 #2 Why? I would think it pretty obvious but I would prefer to encourage you to do your own homework.