AStaunton Messages 100 Reaction score 1 Thread starter Mar 27, 2011 #1 is it meaningful to evaluate cos and sin at infinity? I ask in relation to Fourier integrals... ie does cos(infinity) have a value
is it meaningful to evaluate cos and sin at infinity? I ask in relation to Fourier integrals... ie does cos(infinity) have a value
cragar Messages 2,546 Reaction score 3 Mar 27, 2011 #2 The improper integral of sin(x) or cos(x) from zero to inf does not converge or diverge so you can't evaluate it.
The improper integral of sin(x) or cos(x) from zero to inf does not converge or diverge so you can't evaluate it.
gb7nash Homework Helper Messages 804 Reaction score 1 Mar 27, 2011 #3 AStaunton said: ie does cos(infinity) have a value You tell me. What does the graph of cosine look like? Is cos(x) going to approach a certain number as x approaches infinity?
AStaunton said: ie does cos(infinity) have a value You tell me. What does the graph of cosine look like? Is cos(x) going to approach a certain number as x approaches infinity?