Evaluating the Gaussian integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the standard Gaussian integral, specifically the expression \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx\). Participants are exploring various methods and theorems related to this integral, including Fubini's theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to outline a method involving squaring the integral and using Fubini's theorem, but questions the validity of equating the product of two integrals with an iterated integral. Other participants clarify aspects of Fubini's theorem and its application to the problem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the application of Fubini's theorem and its implications for evaluating the Gaussian integral. There is a focus on understanding the justification for the steps involved, particularly regarding the relationship between the product of integrals and iterated integrals. Multiple interpretations of the theorem's application are being explored.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the need for justification in the steps taken to evaluate the integral, and participants are questioning whether the outlined method is the only approach available.

loom91
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Hi,

I'm trying to evaluate the standard Gaussian integral

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx = \sqrt{\pi}

The standard method seems to be by i)squaring the integral, ii)then by setting the product of the two integrals equal to the iterated integral constructed by composing the two integrals, iii)using Fubini's theorem to turn this into an area integral and iv)then using Fubini's theorem again to turn this back into an iterated integral, this time in polar coordinates.

Of these, (ii) seems impossible to me. Why would the iterated integral be equal to the product of the two integrals taken separately? Even if this were the case, this does not seem like a result so trivial that you could use it without any justification. Are there other ways to evaluate the integral? Thanks.

Molu
 
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ii) & not iii) uses Fubini's theorem.

Daniel.

BTW, it's "\infty" that gives the symbol \infty
 
dextercioby said:
ii) & not iii) uses Fubini's theorem.

Daniel.

BTW, it's "\infty" that gives the symbol \infty

That's what I wrote, and thanks for the infinity.
 
The fact that
\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx\right)\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(y)dy= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)g(y)dxdy= \int\int_A f(x)g(y)dA
where A is all of R2, is Fubini's theorem.
 
HallsofIvy said:
The fact that
\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx\right)\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty g(y)dy= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)g(y)dxdy= \int\int_A f(x)g(y)dA
where A is all of R2, is Fubini's theorem.

Checking again, I see that there are two parts to Fubini's theorem of which (ii) uses one part (product of integrals=double integral) and (iii) and (iv) use the other (double integral=iterated integral). In any case, is this the only way to evaluate the gaussian integral?
 

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