- #1

- 14

- 0

I figured it out... how do I remove this question?

Last edited:

You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

- Thread starter RBG
- Start date

- #1

- 14

- 0

I figured it out... how do I remove this question?

Last edited:

- #2

- 535

- 72

- ## \{f_n(x_1) \}## is a real bounded sequence so there is a converging subsequence ## \{f_{\sigma_1(n)}(x_1) \}## that converges to ##f(x_1)##
- ## \{f_{\sigma_1(n)}(x_2) \}## is a real bounded sequence so there is a converging subsequence ## \{f_{(\sigma_2 \circ \sigma_1)(n)}(x_2) \}## that converges to ##f(x_2)##. Furthermore ## \{f_{(\sigma_2 \circ \sigma_1)(n)}(x_1) \}## converges to ##f(x_1)## as a subsequence of ## \{f_{\sigma_1(n)}(x_1) \}##.
- Repeating this process, you have ##\{ f_{(\sigma_p\circ ... \circ \sigma_1)(n)}(x_i)\} ## convergerges to ##f(x_i)## for all ##i = 1... p##.

- #3

Share:

- Replies
- 5

- Views
- 527

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 585

- Replies
- 11

- Views
- 587

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 607

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 1K

- Replies
- 6

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 18

- Views
- 937

- Replies
- 13

- Views
- 531

- Replies
- 5

- Views
- 856

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 422