- #1

Glenn Rowe

Gold Member

- 23

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$$

\begin{align}

i\frac{dU\left(t\right)}{dt} & =U_{0}^{\dagger}\left(t\right)H_{I}U_{0}\left(t\right)U\left(t\right)\\

& =H_{I}\left(t\right)U\left(t\right)

\end{align}$$

which leads to the time-ordered product and Wick's theorem.

My question is: is it valid to use the Schrodinger equation (which I always assumed was for nonrelativistic QM) to derive things in a relativistic quantum field theory? Neither book makes any comment on this point. I would have thought you'd need to use the Klein-Gordon or Dirac equation, depending on the particles concerned.

Thanks for any insight.