Example of non-integrable partial derivative

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jostpuur
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Can you give an example of a function [itex]f:X\times Y\to\mathbb{R}[/itex], where [itex]X,Y\subset\mathbb{R}[/itex], such that the integral

[tex] \int\limits_Y f(x,y) dy[/tex]

converges for all [itex]x\in X[/itex], the partial derivative

[tex] \partial_x f(x,y)[/tex]

exists for all [itex](x,y)\in X\times Y[/itex], and the integral

[tex] \int\limits_Y \partial_x f(x,y) dy[/tex]

diverges at least for some [itex]x\in X[/itex]?
 
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Have you tried working backwards? Rather than guess at what f has to be to give a [itex]\partial_x f[/itex] with the desired property, instead choose [itex]\partial_x f[/itex] first.
 
If I choose [itex]\partial_x f[/itex] so that it cannot be integrated with respect to [itex]y[/itex], then I easily get a function [itex]f[/itex] which cannot be integrated with respect to [itex]y[/itex] either. It looks like a difficult task, either way you try it.
 
I have a few infinite families of solutions. Do you want me to just post them or let you figure them out?

Hint: try [itex]X, Y = \left[ 1, \infty \right)[/itex]
 
Feel free to post your example functions. I don't mind if you take, the right to the feel of discovery, away from me :smile:

I might try to obtain the feel of proving somebody wrong, when I check what's wrong with your example functions :wink:
 
OK, the first one I thought of was

[tex]f(x,y) = \frac{1}{y^2} x^{-y}[/tex]

where X and Y are both the interval [1, infinity).

[tex]\int_1^\infty f(x,y) \; dy[/tex]

converges for all x in X, but

[tex]\int_1^\infty \partial_x f(x,y) \; dy = \int_1^\infty \frac{-1}{y} x^{-y-1} \; dy[/tex]

diverges for x = 1.
 
I see. Very nice.
 
And here is one where the sets X and Y are the entire real line:

[tex]f(x,y) = \frac{\sin{xy}}{y^2 + a^2}[/tex]

Then

[tex]\int_R \partial_x f(x,y) \; dy = \int_R \frac{y \cos{xy}}{y^2 + a^2} \; dy[/tex]

fails to converge for x = 0.