MHB Existence and Uniqeness of Finite Fields .... Example from D&F ....

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The discussion focuses on understanding finite fields as presented in Dummit and Foote's "Abstract Algebra." The first question addresses why a finite field $\mathbb{F}$ of dimension $n$ over its prime subfield $\mathbb{F}_p$ contains exactly $p^n$ elements, which is explained by the fact that each element can be represented by $n$ coordinates, each taking $p$ possible values. The second question explores why the multiplicative group $\mathbb{F}^{\times}$, being cyclic of order $p^n - 1$, leads to the conclusion that $\alpha^{p^n - 1} = 1$ for all non-zero $\alpha$ in $\mathbb{F}$, which is justified by Fermat's little theorem. The responses clarify these concepts, emphasizing the structure and properties of finite fields. Understanding these principles is essential for grasping the broader implications of finite fields in algebra.
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I am reading David S. Dummit and Richard M. Foote : Abstract Algebra ...

I am trying to understand the example on Finite Fields in Section 13.5 Separable and Inseparable Extensions ...The example reads as follows:
View attachment 6647
View attachment 6648
My questions are as follows:
Question 1In the above text from D&F we read the following:

" ... ... If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ over its prime subfield $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, then $$\mathbb{F}$$ has precisely $$p^n$$ elements. ... ... "Can someone please explain why, exactly, this follows?

Question 2

In the above text from D&F we read the following:

" ... ... Since the multiplicative group $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ is (in fact cyclic) of order $$p^n - 1$$, we have $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0 $$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... "Can someone give me the exact reasoning concerning why $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0$$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... ?(I am guessing that for some reason I cannot explain, that $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that the characteristic is $$p^n - 1 $$ ... ... but why does it mean this is the case ...? )

Hope someone can help ...

Peter
 
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Peter said:
Question 1

In the above text from D&F we read the following:

" ... ... If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ over its prime subfield $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, then $$\mathbb{F}$$ has precisely $$p^n$$ elements. ... ... "

Can someone please explain why, exactly, this follows?
If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ as a vector space over $$\mathbb{F}_p$$ then a basis for this vector space will contain $n$ elements. An element of $$\mathbb{F}$$ is then uniquely specified by its coordinates with respect to this basis. Each coordinate is an element of $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, and can therefore take $p$ possible values, since that is the number of elements of $$\mathbb{F}_p$$. There are $n$ such coordinates, each taking $p$ values, which gives you a total of $p^n$ possible expressions to specify an element of $$\mathbb{F}$$.

Peter said:
Question 2

In the above text from D&F we read the following:

" ... ... Since the multiplicative group $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ is (in fact cyclic) of order $$p^n - 1$$, we have $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0 $$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... "Can someone give me the exact reasoning concerning why $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0$$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... ?
This is just Fermat's little theorem.
 
Opalg said:
If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ as a vector space over $$\mathbb{F}_p$$ then a basis for this vector space will contain $n$ elements. An element of $$\mathbb{F}$$ is then uniquely specified by its coordinates with respect to this basis. Each coordinate is an element of $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, and can therefore take $p$ possible values, since that is the number of elements of $$\mathbb{F}_p$$. There are $n$ such coordinates, each taking $p$ values, which gives you a total of $p^n$ possible expressions to specify an element of $$\mathbb{F}$$.This is just Fermat's little theorem.
Thanks Opalg ... very clear and very helpful ...

... appreciate your help and support ...

Peter
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

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