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I am reading David S. Dummit and Richard M. Foote : Abstract Algebra ...
I am trying to understand the example on Finite Fields in Section 13.5 Separable and Inseparable Extensions ...The example reads as follows:
View attachment 6647
View attachment 6648
My questions are as follows:
Question 1In the above text from D&F we read the following:
" ... ... If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ over its prime subfield $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, then $$\mathbb{F}$$ has precisely $$p^n$$ elements. ... ... "Can someone please explain why, exactly, this follows?
Question 2
In the above text from D&F we read the following:
" ... ... Since the multiplicative group $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ is (in fact cyclic) of order $$p^n - 1$$, we have $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0 $$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... "Can someone give me the exact reasoning concerning why $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0$$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... ?(I am guessing that for some reason I cannot explain, that $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that the characteristic is $$p^n - 1 $$ ... ... but why does it mean this is the case ...? )
Hope someone can help ...
Peter
I am trying to understand the example on Finite Fields in Section 13.5 Separable and Inseparable Extensions ...The example reads as follows:
View attachment 6647
View attachment 6648
My questions are as follows:
Question 1In the above text from D&F we read the following:
" ... ... If $$\mathbb{F}$$ is of dimension $$n$$ over its prime subfield $$\mathbb{F}_p$$, then $$\mathbb{F}$$ has precisely $$p^n$$ elements. ... ... "Can someone please explain why, exactly, this follows?
Question 2
In the above text from D&F we read the following:
" ... ... Since the multiplicative group $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ is (in fact cyclic) of order $$p^n - 1$$, we have $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0 $$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... "Can someone give me the exact reasoning concerning why $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that $$\alpha^{ p^n - 1} = 1$$ for every $$\alpha \ne 0$$ in $$\mathbb{F}$$ ... ... ?(I am guessing that for some reason I cannot explain, that $$\mathbb{F}^{ \times }$$ being of order $$p^n - 1$$ implies that the characteristic is $$p^n - 1 $$ ... ... but why does it mean this is the case ...? )
Hope someone can help ...
Peter