- #1
odck11
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Dear All:
Given two random variables X and Y, if I have established the relationship E[X]>=E[Y], does this necessarily imply that X must have a first-order-stochastic dominance over Y?
I know that first order stochastic dominance implies that the mean value of the dominating random variable be greater than the other variable but I am trying to find out whether the reverse must hold.
Thanks in advance.
Regards.
Given two random variables X and Y, if I have established the relationship E[X]>=E[Y], does this necessarily imply that X must have a first-order-stochastic dominance over Y?
I know that first order stochastic dominance implies that the mean value of the dominating random variable be greater than the other variable but I am trying to find out whether the reverse must hold.
Thanks in advance.
Regards.