Exploring the Countable Infinity of Disjoint Sets and their Cartesian Product

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the properties of Cartesian products of disjoint countably infinite sets, specifically addressing why the Cartesian product of such sets is also countably infinite. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of bijections.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that by ordering two disjoint countably infinite sets and forming a triangular mapping, the Cartesian product can be shown to be countably infinite.
  • Another participant suggests defining bijections for the two sets and constructing a function that maps natural numbers to the Cartesian product, asserting that this function is a bijection.
  • A later reply challenges the correctness of the initial mapping, stating that it is not surjective and provides an example to illustrate this point.
  • Subsequent comments acknowledge the error in the initial function and propose a corrected function that maps pairs of natural numbers to the Cartesian product, asserting that this corrected function is a bijection.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the surjectivity of the initial proposed function and refine their arguments based on this feedback. The discussion remains unresolved as to the implications of these corrections on the overall claim about the countability of the Cartesian product.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the mappings and the definitions of the functions involved. The discussion highlights the need for clarity in defining bijections and their properties.

zeebo17
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Hi,

I was wondering if two sets are disjoint countably infinite sets why is their Cartesian product also countably infinite?

Thanks!
 
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You can order your two sets a_1,a_2,a_3,... and b_1,b_2,b_3 mapping them onto the set of natural numbers.

Then, you can form a triangular mapping recursively (like you do to prove that the set of rational numbers is countably infinite)... so:
(a_1,b_1) maps to 1,
(a_1,b_2) maps to 2,
(a_2,b_1) maps to 3,
(a_1,b_3) maps to 4,
(a_2,b_2) maps to 5, etc. etc.
 
Another way to think about the problem...

Since we have two countably infinite sets call them A , B we can define two bijections:

\alpha: N \rightarrow A and \varphi: N \rightarrow B.

We can then define another function \zeta: N \rightarrow A X B as \zeta(n) = ( \alpha(n) , \varphi(n) ).

\zeta is a bijection since \alpha and \varphi are bijections and therefore A X B is countable.
 
CharmedQuark, what you said isn't exactly correct, since your constructed function from N to AxB won't be surjective.
 
Good point, in fact, it is very badly non surjective!

For example, if \alpha(2)= p and \beta(2)= q, then \zeta(2)= (p, q) but there is NO other \zeta(n) giving a pair having p as its first member nor is there any other n so that \zeta(n) is pair having q as its second member.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Good point, in fact, it is very badly non surjective!

For example, if \alpha(2)= p and \beta(2)= q, then \zeta(2)= (p, q) but there is NO other \zeta(n) giving a pair having p as its first member nor is there any other n so that \zeta(n) is pair having q as its second member.

Yeah I wrote it last night and wasn't paying attention to what I was writing. The function should instead be a function from N X N \rightarrow A X B. Other than that little error the principle is the same. \zeta( n_{1} , n_{2} ) = ( \alpha( n_{1} ) , \varphi( n_{2} ) ). This function is a bijection and N X N is countable so any cartesian product of two countably infinite sets is countable.
 

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