- #1

Shirish

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So essentially the RHS of Newton's 2nd law is invariant between ##S## and ##S'##: ##m\mathbf{a}=m'\mathbf{a'}##.

Do we implicitly assume here that a given force acting on a given body does not change depending on the frame of reference? Without this assumption, i.e. ##\mathbf{F}=\mathbf{F'}##, I don't see how we can claim that Newton's 2nd law is covariant.