I recently watched the Feynman Messenger Lectures on project tuva. I hope some of you have watched the second video lecture in the collection or will watch it in order to help me with my following question . In this lecture Feynman talks about angular momentum in terms of the time rate of change of the area swept out by the radial vector. That is, angular momentum is proportional to the areal velocity. I've always had trouble intuitively understanding angular momentum but feynman's geometrical description made sense to me and seemed simple. My question is this: Is interpreting angular momentum as being equal to the areal velocity times 2m valid in general? And if yes, then why is this way not taught in physics courses? Any answers would be greatly appreciated.