gu1t4r5
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Homework Statement
Consider the lagrangian [tex]L=\delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu \phi^* - m^2 \phi \phi^*[/tex]
Show that the transformation:
[tex]\phi \rightarrow \phi + a \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \phi^* \rightarrow \phi^* + a^*[/tex]
is symmetry when m=0.
The attempt at a solution
Substituting the transformation into the lagrangian gives:
[tex]L=\delta_\mu ( \phi + a ) \delta^\mu ( \phi^* + a^* )- m^2 (\phi + a) ( \phi^* + a^*)[/tex]
[tex]= (\delta_\mu \phi + \delta_\mu a) ( \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta^\mu a^*) - m^2 ( \phi \phi^* + a^* \phi + a \phi^* + aa^*)[/tex]
I know that this is a symmetry when the action is invariant, so the langrangian is invariant up to a total derivative. [itex]L \rightarrow L + \delta_\mu J^\mu[/itex]
I can't see how I could rewrite the above expression so that [itex]L \rightarrow L + \delta_\mu J^\mu[/itex] . Obviously the second term vanishes with m=0, but expanding the first gives:
[tex]L = \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu a^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu a^*[/tex]
meaning the total derivative would have to be
[tex]\delta_\mu J^\mu = \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu a^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu a^*[/tex]
which is a form I can't rewrite it into (what would [itex]J^\mu[/itex] be?)
The only solution I can see would be for a & a* to be independent of spacetime, so that [itex]\delta_\mu a = \delta^\mu a^* = 0[/itex] , but other than answering the question I don't know if there is any justification in saying that.
So, are a/a* independent of spacetime, or should I be able to rearrange the above to form a total derivative term? Or am I missing something else completely?
Thanks.
Consider the lagrangian [tex]L=\delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu \phi^* - m^2 \phi \phi^*[/tex]
Show that the transformation:
[tex]\phi \rightarrow \phi + a \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \phi^* \rightarrow \phi^* + a^*[/tex]
is symmetry when m=0.
The attempt at a solution
Substituting the transformation into the lagrangian gives:
[tex]L=\delta_\mu ( \phi + a ) \delta^\mu ( \phi^* + a^* )- m^2 (\phi + a) ( \phi^* + a^*)[/tex]
[tex]= (\delta_\mu \phi + \delta_\mu a) ( \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta^\mu a^*) - m^2 ( \phi \phi^* + a^* \phi + a \phi^* + aa^*)[/tex]
I know that this is a symmetry when the action is invariant, so the langrangian is invariant up to a total derivative. [itex]L \rightarrow L + \delta_\mu J^\mu[/itex]
I can't see how I could rewrite the above expression so that [itex]L \rightarrow L + \delta_\mu J^\mu[/itex] . Obviously the second term vanishes with m=0, but expanding the first gives:
[tex]L = \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu a^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu a^*[/tex]
meaning the total derivative would have to be
[tex]\delta_\mu J^\mu = \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu a^* + \delta_\mu a \delta^\mu \phi^* + \delta_\mu \phi \delta^\mu a^*[/tex]
which is a form I can't rewrite it into (what would [itex]J^\mu[/itex] be?)
The only solution I can see would be for a & a* to be independent of spacetime, so that [itex]\delta_\mu a = \delta^\mu a^* = 0[/itex] , but other than answering the question I don't know if there is any justification in saying that.
So, are a/a* independent of spacetime, or should I be able to rearrange the above to form a total derivative term? Or am I missing something else completely?
Thanks.