DanielBW said:
$tan2\theta \cdot tan \alpha =-1$
$\theta = \dfrac{\pi}{4}+\dfrac{\alpha}{2}$
If you slog through the whole messy problem using the [math]tan(2 \theta)[/math] trig expression you indeed (after a while) find that
[math]\theta = \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\alpha}{2}[/math]
However there are two problems with this.
First, there is another possible solution. At some point in the derivation we get
[math]tan( \theta ) = tan( \alpha ) \pm sec( \alpha )[/math]
The + sign generates the given answer. I do not know how to solve the case for the - sign.
Second, if you put the given solution into the original equation you get
[math]tan \left ( 2 \left ( \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\alpha}{2} \right ) \right )[/math]
[math]= tan \left ( \frac{\pi}{2} + \alpha \right )[/math]
[math]= \frac{tan \left ( \frac{\pi}{2} \right ) + tan( \alpha )}{1 - tan \left ( \frac{\pi}{2} \right )~tan( \alpha )}[/math]
I don't care what WA says, this expression is indeterminate for arbitrary [math]\alpha[/math]. So the given answer does not work in the original equation. The only hope for a solution here is solving [math]tan( \theta ) = tan(a) - sec(a)[/math]. Does someone know how to solve this?
-Dan