blueyellow
Never mind. I think I figured it out now.
Neither of those are correct.blueyellow said:Sorry I got stuck again.
I worked out E and H to be:
E=[itex]\frac{\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi r}[/itex][cosθ [itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))-cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))-[itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))]r-hat
H=[itex]\frac{p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{\mu 4\pi cr^{2}}[/itex]cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))[itex]\phi[/itex]-hat
N=[itex]\frac{\mu_{0}p^{2}_{0}\omega^{4}d}{\mu 16\pi^{2} cr^{3}}[/itex]cosθ sinθ [cosθ [itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))-cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))-[itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))]cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))θ-hat
But I am having trouble integrating doing the integral of N.n with respect to the area. I have tried to do this for hours, but I don't know what to do, because if I try to integrate it with respect to r it doesn't quite work because I do integration by parts and it goes around in circles. And I still don't know how to do the integral without using divergence theorem. Please help.
The gradient looks fine now, but your dA/dt must be wrong.blueyellow said:Really? I think I did them really carefully.
E=-grad [itex]\phi[/itex] -dA/dt
grad [itex]\phi[/itex]=(d[itex]\phi[/itex]/dr]r-hat +(1/r)(d[itex]\phi[/itex]/dθ)θ-hat
=[itex]\frac{-\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi}[/itex]cos[itex]^{2}[/itex]θ([itex]\frac{-1}{r}[/itex][itex]\frac{-\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))+[itex]\frac{1}{r^{2}}[/itex]cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c)))r-hat
+[itex]\frac{1}{r}[/itex]([itex]\frac{-\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi r}[/itex]cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))(-sin 2θ))θ-hat
Oh, I think I realized my mistake now. It was some mistake I made with factorising with brackets that made me think that one of my (1/r^2) terms was an (1/r) term.
So E should be:
E=[itex]\frac{\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi r}[/itex][cosθ [itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))-[itex]\frac{\omega}{c}[/itex]sin([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))]r-hat
This is completely wrong. Except for ##\hat{\mathbf{z}}##, the vector potential is already written in spherical coordinates. As I said back in post #26, all you have to do is rewrite ##\hat{\mathbf{z}}## in terms of the unit vectors for spherical coordinates.blueyellow said:I thought that to translate from cylindrical to spherical coordinates:
r=[itex]\sqrt{s^{2}+z^{2}}[/itex]
s=0
so r=z
So A[itex]_{r}[/itex]=A[itex]_{z}[/itex]
So
A=[itex]\frac{\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi cr}[/itex]cosθ cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))r-hat
θ=arctan (s/z)=arctan 0= 0
=arccos (z/r)=arccos(z/z)=arccos 1=0
[itex]\phi[/itex]=[itex]\phi[/itex]=0
So since A only has an r component, and dA[itex]_{r}[/itex]/d[itex]\phi[/itex]=0
only (1/r)(-dA[itex]_{r}[/itex]/dθ)[itex]\phi[/itex]-hat matters while doing the curl of A.
So, B=[itex]\frac{\mu_{0}p_{0}\omega^{2}d}{4\pi cr^{2}}[/itex]sinθ cos([itex]\omega[/itex](t-r/c))[itex]\phi[/itex]-hat
And H= what I said it equals in the previous post, because H=B/(mu*mu0).
Right? Please tell me if I has made a mistake somewhere, such as when converting from cynlindrical to spherical.
Antiphon said:The radiation zone is where the transverse field dominate over any radial components. It is defined to be R = 2D^2/lambda where D is the diameter of the source and lambda is the wavelength.