Find the proof with supremum for bounded and disjoint sets

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let A,B be nonempty sets of real numbers, prove that:
if A,B are bounded and they are disjoint, then supA doesn't equal supB.

here's my proof:
assume that supA=supB=c
then for every a in A a<=c and for every b in B b<=c.
bacuse A.B are bounded then: for every e>0 there exists x in A such that
c-e<x<=c and there exists y in B such that c-e<y<=c so we have two elements that are both in A and B, but this is a contradiction.
is this proof valid?
i feel that i should show that y=x, but i think bacuse e is as we choose, we have to find elements which are both in A and B.
 
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loop quantum gravity said:
let A,B be nonempty sets of real numbers, prove that:
if A,B are bounded and they are disjoint, then supA doesn't equal supB.

here's my proof:
assume that supA=supB=c
then for every a in A a<=c and for every b in B b<=c.
bacuse A.B are bounded then: for every e>0 there exists x in A such that
c-e<x<=c and there exists y in B such that c-e<y<=c

This does not follow from boundedness, it follows from the fact that c is the sup. If there was an e such that there is no element of A btw c and c-e, then it would means that c-e is an upper bound of A that is smaller than c. ==><==
 
ok thanks.
just to clear on other matters, am i right in saying that the following arent correct:
if A is infinite set and doesn't have a minimum then it's not bounded, the simple counter example is the interval (0,1) it's infinite doesn't have a minimum but it's bounded.
another statement is if A,B are bounded and supA=infB then the intersection has only one element.
i found the next counter example, A=(0,1) B=(1,2) A and B are bounded and supA=infB, but they are disjoint.
 
"for every e>0 there exists x in A such that
c-e<x<=c and there exists y in B such that c-e<y<=c so we have two elements that are both in A and B, but this is a contradiction."

Wrong conclusion ! Ok, for every e>0, there will be x in A and y in B such that c-e<x<=c and c-e<y<=c, but from this, we can not say anything about A and B contains the same elements.

Note that x and y depend on each e>0 (they "move" when e is changed), so you can not show x = y in anyway
 
"for every e>0 there exists x in A such that
c-e<x<=c and there exists y in B such that c-e<y<=c so we have two elements that are both in A and B, but this is a contradiction."

Wrong conclusion ! Ok, for every e>0, there will be x in A and y in B such that c-e<x<=c and c-e<y<=c, but from this, we can not say anything about A and B contains the same elements.

Note that x and y depend on each e>0 (they "move" when e is changed), so you can not show x = y in anyway
 
loop quantum gravity said:
ok thanks.
just to clear on other matters, am i right in saying that the following arent correct:
if A is infinite set and doesn't have a minimum then it's not bounded, the simple counter example is the interval (0,1) it's infinite doesn't have a minimum but it's bounded.
another statement is if A,B are bounded and supA=infB then the intersection has only one element.

Both are incorrect, as desired.

For the second, there are two good ways to make this true that I can see:
* If sup A = inf B then the intersection has at most one element.
* If sup A = inf B then the intersection of the closures has exactly one element.
 
what if A is strictly irrational and B is strictly rational, couldn't you use that to form a counter example?
 
climber/jumper said:
what if A is strictly irrational and B is strictly rational, couldn't you use that to form a counter example?

* If sup A = inf B then the intersection has at most one element.

This holds in that case, since the intersection is empty.

* If sup A = inf B then the intersection of the closures has exactly one element.

This also holds. Sup A might not be in A; if it is in A, then inf B is not in B.