MHB Find the volume by revolving around the x-axis without expanding

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The discussion focuses on finding the volume of a solid generated by revolving the region defined by the graph of y=(x^2+1)^2 around the x-axis. The volume is expressed as an integral, V=∫[0 to 1] π[(x^2+1)^4] dx. Participants debate methods to solve the integral without expanding the polynomial, with one suggesting repeated partial integration. However, others argue that expanding the polynomial simplifies the process, ultimately leading to the correct integral form. The consensus leans towards expansion for ease of calculation, despite initial attempts to avoid it.
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A solid is generated when the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the graph of , $$y=(x^2+1)^2$$
The line $$x=1$$ , the x-axis, and the y-axis is revolved about the x-axis. Find the volumn

$$
V=\int_{a}^{b}\pi\left[f(x)\right]^2 dx
=\int_{0}^{1}\pi\left[\left(x^2+1\right)^2\right]^2 \,dx
=\int_{0}^{1}\pi\left(x^2+1\right)^4 \,dx
$$

provided this is ok so far, how do you do this without expanding it?
 
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karush said:
A solid is generated when the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the graph of , $$y=(x^2+1)^2$$
The line $$x=1$$ , the x-axis, and the y-axis is revolved about the x-axis. Find the volumn

$$
V=\int_{a}^{b}\pi\left[f(x)\right]^2 dx
=\int_{0}^{1}\pi\left[\left(x^2+1\right)^2\right]^2 \,dx
=\int_{0}^{1}\pi\left(x^2+1\right)^4 \,dx
$$

provided this is ok so far, how do you do this without expanding it?

Hi karush,You can do it by repeated partial integration:
$$\int udv = uv - \int vdu$$
So:
$$\begin{aligned}\int_0^1 (x^2+1)^4 dx
&= (x^2+1)^4 x \Big|_0^1 - \int_0^1 x\cdot d((x^2+1)^4)\\
&= 16 - \int_0^1 x\cdot 4(x^2+1)^3 \cdot 2x\,dx \\
&= 16 - 8\int_0^1 (x^2+1)^3d(\frac 1 3 x^3)
\end{aligned}$$
and repeat...... but it's easier to expand and integrate! ;)
 
Hi Karush (Wave),

Personally, I don't see a way around it...I could be wrong. Solving it as a function of $y$ seems to be even more difficult.
 
ok expanding looks easier so

expanding $\left(x^2+1\right)^4$ would be $x^8+4x^6+x^4+4x^2+1$

so then we have

$$\pi\int_{0}^{1}\left(x^8+4x^6+6x^4+4x^2+1\right) dx$$
 
Last edited:
Your coefficients aren't quite right...
 
is post #4 correct I edited it..(Dull)
 
Yes, it is. (Yes)
 
karush said:
is post #4 correct I edited it..(Dull)

Yes! Your integral is correct now.
(But your expansion still has the wrong coefficient.)
 

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