Finding a Function from (G x K) to (G/H) x (K/L) for First Isomorphism Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the First Isomorphism Theorem in the context of group theory, specifically focusing on the relationship between the groups (G x K)/(H x L) and (G/H) x (K/L), where H is a normal subgroup of G and L is a normal subgroup of K.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the need for a function phi to apply the First Isomorphism Theorem and discuss the possibility of defining a map from (G x K) to (G/H) x (K/L). Questions arise regarding the nature of the subgroups and the definitions of the mappings involved.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into constructing the necessary mappings using existing homomorphisms from G to G/H and K to K/L. There is an ongoing exploration of how to define a single map that incorporates both mappings, though uncertainty remains about the specific forms of these homomorphisms.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding the definitions of cosets and the structure of the groups involved, as well as the requirement that L is a normal subgroup of K, which may influence the approach to defining the mappings.

mykayla10
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Homework Statement


Suppose H is a normal subgroup G and L is a subgroup of K. Then (G x K)/(H x L) is isomorphic to (G/H) x (K/L)


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The Attempt at a Solution


I know that I have to use the First Isomorphism Theorem, but in order to do that I need some function phi. I am having a really difficult time finding a function from (G x K) to (G/H)x(K/L). If I have this I am almost certain I can complete the proof with the First Isomorphism Theorem.
 
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Does the problem say "L is a subgroup of K"? It's not necessarily a normal subgroup, correct?
 
It says that L is a normal subgroup of K.
 
mykayla10 said:
It says that L is a normal subgroup of K.

That's good. You have already studied the picture where there is homomorphism from G to some other group (which could also be G) and map phi1 from G to G/H.

Livewise you can have a picture where there is a map from K to some other group and a map phi2 from K to K/L. The group G X K is just ordered pairs of elements from the two groups that look like {g, k}. You can use phi1 to map the g-element into G/H and the phi2 map to map the k-element into K/L. That defines a map from GxH to G/H x K/L.
 
you are allowed to use two different phis??
 
You define a single map, often called phi1 x phi2, whose definition involves using both phi1 and phi2. So I suppose the answer is "yes, you are allowed to use two different phis", but you must word it so you are defining a single map by using them.
 
Ok, so that makes sense. Now I am lost as to what the two phis should look like. phi1: G ->G/H and phi2: K -> K/L. However, I don't know what these look like. I am so bad at proofs.
 
Read what your text says about G/H as a group. It might say that the elements of G/H are cosets of H or it might say thay are "coset representatives" or something like that. Whatever the terminology, to get a homomorphism phi1 from G to G/H, map the element G to the coset (or coset representative of) gH.
 

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