MHB Finding border points and then interior points

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The discussion revolves around determining the interior and boundary points of the set A = {1/n | n ∈ ℕ}. It is established that the interior int(A) is empty because no neighborhood around any point in A can be fully contained within A due to gaps between elements. Consequently, the boundary bd(A) includes all points in A plus the point 0, as every point in A is a border point. Clarifications are provided on how to approach the definitions of interior and boundary points, emphasizing that the order of finding these points does not affect the results. The key takeaway is that all elements of A are border points, and 0 is also a border point due to its neighborhood intersecting both A and its complement.
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I am working on a classical real analysis problem as follow:

Find $int (A)$ and $bd (A)$ if $A = \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}= \{ \frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, ... \}$.

The answers from solution manual are respectively $ int (A) = \emptyset$ and $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$. And here are my textbook's definition of interior point and border point:

Let $A \subseteq \mathbb R$. A point $x$ in $\mathbb R$ is an interior point of A if there exists a neighborhood $N$ of $x$ such that $N \subseteq A$. If for every neighborhood of $N$ of $x$, $N \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$, then $x$ is a border point of $A$.

And then there is also this:

Every point $x \in A$ is either interior or border point of $A$.
To my inexperienced mind, the answer to $int (A) = \emptyset $ is understandable because while neighborhood $N (x | \epsilon >0)$ is an open set (per textbook), but $A = \{ \frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, ... \}$ is incomplete, meaning that there is gap between any two consecutive elements of $A$. Therefore by technicality $N (x | \epsilon )$ does not exist inside $A$. (Am I correct here?)

The answer to $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$ is understandably the direct consequence of $int (A) = \emptyset $, i.e., if none of the elements of $A$ is interior point, then all of them must be border points, plus the zero.

But what troubles me is this: What happens if I instead answer $int(A)$ first and then $bd (A)$ second? Am I going to get the same answers?

(i) For $\{0\}$, I was tempted to conclude that zero is indeed a border point because $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all $\epsilon >0$. But had I not just concluded above that $N (x | \epsilon)$ does not exist in $A$?

(ii) How about for the rest of the points, i.e., $\frac{1}{n}$? How do I conclude $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all possible $\epsilon >0$?

I think I must have missed something here. Any help would therefore be very much appreciated. Thank you for your time and gracious help. ~MA
 
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Hi MaryAnn.

MaryAnn said:
Therefore by technicality $N (x | \epsilon )$ does not exist inside $A$. (Am I correct here?)
You mean to say that for all $\epsilon>0$, $N(x\mid\epsilon)\not\subseteq A$, because $N(x\mid\epsilon)$ contains points not in $A$. For example, for $x=\frac13$, given $\epsilon>0$, let
$$\delta=\min\left\{\frac{\epsilon}2,\frac{\frac13-\frac14}2\right\};$$
then $y=x-\delta\not\in A$ but $y\in N(x\mid\epsilon)$. (If all this looks confusing to you, try sketching the points on a number line.) In general, if $x=\frac1n$, let
$$\delta=\min\left\{\frac{\epsilon}2,\frac{\frac1n-\frac1{n+1}}2\right\};$$
and $y=x-\delta$ as above. Hence there does not exist any $x$ such that $x$ is an interior point of $A$ (not that $N (x | \epsilon )$ does not exist).

MaryAnn said:
But what troubles me is this: What happens if I instead answer $int(A)$ first and then $bd (A)$ second? Am I going to get the same answers?
You can do whichever one first, it doesn’t really matter. If you do everything correctly, you should get the same answers.

MaryAnn said:
(i) For $\{0\}$, I was tempted to conclude that zero is indeed a border point because $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all $\epsilon >0$. But had I not just concluded above that $N (x | \epsilon)$ does not exist in $A$?
See above. Note also that in the above you were taking $x\in A$ whereas now you are considering $0$, which is not in $A$.

MaryAnn said:
(ii) How about for the rest of the points, i.e., $\frac{1}{n}$? How do I conclude $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all possible $\epsilon >0$?
For $x\in A$, $N (x | \epsilon)\cap A$ is clearly not going to be empty because it contains $x$ itself. It also contains points not in $A$ by the method outlined in (i) above. Hence every point in $A$ is a border point. For points outside $A$, $0$ is the only point that is a border point. Given any $\epsilon>0$, $N(0\mid\epsilon)$ contains a point in $A$ (namely $\frac1N$ where $N$ is any integer greater than $\frac1\epsilon$) and also a point not in $A$ (namely $0$ itself). For any $x\not\in A$ and $x\ne0$, let
$$\epsilon=\tfrac12\inf\left\{\{|x|\}\cup\{|x-a|:a\in A\}\right\};$$
then $N (x | \epsilon)\cap A$ does not contain any point in $A$ and so $x$ can’t be a border point.
 
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We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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