Finding c for Real x in e^cx^2 vs. e^x + e^-x

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the values of the real number c for which the inequality (e^x + e^{-x})/2 ≤ e^{cx^2} holds for all real x. This relates to the subject area of inequalities and exponential functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss expanding both sides of the inequality into series for term-by-term comparison. There are suggestions to use Taylor series expansions for both sides, with some questioning the validity of directly substituting cx^2 into the series for e^x.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different methods of comparison and raising questions about the appropriateness of using Taylor series expansions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the expansion process, but no consensus has been reached on the best approach.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of potential confusion regarding the application of Taylor series and the derivatives involved, indicating a need for clarity on the assumptions made in the expansions.

ehrenfest
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Homework Statement



For which real numbers c is [tex](e^x+e^{-x})/2 \leq e^{cx^2}[/tex] for all real x?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I think you can expand both sides into series and term by term compare them. The left side is
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n}}{2n!}[/tex]
Can someone help me with the right side?
 
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Try x=iy. LHS = cos(y), RHS=exp(-cy^2)

Hmmm... maybe not. x is real.

cosh(x)=1+x^2/2!+x^4/4!+x^6/6!+...

exp(cx^2)=1+cx^2+c^2x^4/2!+c^3x^6/3!+...

exp(cx^2)-cosh(x)=(c-1/2!)x^2+(c^2/2!-1/4!)x^4+(c^3/3!-1/6!)x^6+...

c>0.5 means that each term is +ve.
 
Last edited:
ehrenfest said:

Homework Statement



For which real numbers c is [tex](e^x+e^{-x})/2 \leq e^{cx^2}[/tex] for all real x?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I think you can expand both sides into series and term by term compare them. The left side is
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n}}{2n!}[/tex]
Can someone help me with the right side?

I guess you mean [tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!}[/tex]

( 2n! really means 2 (n!))

Why don't you expand the RHS also to get
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(cx^2)^{n}}{n!} = <br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{c^n \times x^{2n}}{n!}[/tex]

and then simply compare
 
christianjb said:
exp(cx^2)=1+cx^2+c^2x^4/2!+c^3x^6/3!+...

Sorry--my calculus is a little fuzzy.

Are you allowed to use the same Taylor series expansion of exp(x) with exp(cx^2)? Because you generate the Taylor series expansion by taking the derivatives of exp(x) at 0, and the derivatives of exp(x) at 0 are different from the derivatives of exp(cx^2) at 0, it seems like you might need some variant of the chain rule to make that work. I mean instead of just plugging in cx^2 for x.
 
ehrenfest said:
Sorry--my calculus is a little fuzzy.

Are you allowed to use the same Taylor series expansion of exp(x) with exp(cx^2)? Because you generate the Taylor series expansion by taking the derivatives of exp(x) at 0, and the derivatives of exp(x) at 0 are different from the derivatives of exp(cx^2) at 0, it seems like you might need some variant of the chain rule to make that work. I mean instead of just plugging in cx^2 for x.

Nah, you can just substitute x'=cx^2 on both LHS and RHS.
 

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