Finding the period of a simple pendulum given angular acceleration

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The discussion revolves around finding the period of a physical pendulum described by the differential equation d²θ/dt² = -4πθ. The relevant equation for the period is T = 2π √(L/g). Participants suggest matching the given differential equation to the standard form for a pendulum, leading to the realization that L/g = 1/4π. This allows for the calculation of the period, resulting in T = √π. The solution confirms the correct approach to solving the problem.
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Homework Statement


A physical pendulum oscillates through small angles about the vertical with the angle, measured in radians, obeying the differential equation d2θ/dt2 = -4πθ. What is the period of the oscillation?


Homework Equations


T = 2π √(L/g)


The Attempt at a Solution


I attempted to integrate twice which should give me θ. This did not work, though, because the acceleration is defined by θ.

Thanks!
 
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try to think of a function which you could use for theta. (i.e. a substitution)
 
BruceW said:
try to think of a function which you could use for theta. (i.e. a substitution)
I am trying to think...
θ = acos(H/L)
But I don't think that's what you're thinking of.

Another hint please?
 
The differential equation for a pendulum (that belongs to your relevant equation) is:
$${d^2\theta \over dt^2} + {g \over L}\theta=0$$
(See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pendulum_(mathematics).)

Perhaps you can match that with your differential equation?


Otherwise you would need to learn how to solve the DE...
 
I like Serena said:
The differential equation for a pendulum (that belongs to your relevant equation) is:
$${d^2\theta \over dt^2} + {g \over L}\theta=0$$
(See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pendulum_(mathematics).)

Perhaps you can match that with your differential equation?


Otherwise you would need to learn how to solve the DE...
So from there,
-4\pi\theta + {g \over L}\theta=0

{L \over g}={1 \over 4\pi}

T=\sqrt{4\pi^{2} \over 4\pi}

T=\sqrt{\pi}

Which is the answer! Thanks!
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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