Finding the Radius of Convergence for $zsin(z^2)$ in Maclaurin Series

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The function \( z\sin(z^2) \) is expanded into a Maclaurin series, leading to the need to determine its radius of convergence. The ratio test is applied, and it is concluded that the limit approaches 0, indicating an infinite radius of convergence, \( R = \infty \). A common mistake identified in the discussion involves improper simplification during the limit calculation. Ultimately, the series converges for all real numbers, confirming that the radius of convergence is indeed infinite. Understanding the ratio test is crucial for correctly determining convergence in power series.
MissP.25_5
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Hello.
I need explanation on why the answer for this problem is R = ∞.

Here's the question and the solution.

Expand the function into maclaurin series and find the radius of convergence.
$zsin(z^2)$

Solution:
$$zsin(z^2)=z\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{z^{2(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$

Divide both sides by z,

$$sin(z^2)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{z^{2(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$

So here's the calculation but I don't know how to get the radius of convergence. Answer is ∞.
 
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I think the ratio test should start off like this

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.
 
Mogarrr said:
I think the ratio test should start off like this

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.

That's what I did, only that I use the formula to find R directly, instead of L because R is just 1/L.
Could you show me the steps until you get 0, please? Because as you see mine, I got 4 :/
 
Mogarrr said:
I think the ratio test should start off like this

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.

Oh, I get it now! I just googled about limits and learned it again. I think I understand now why the lmit is infinity. Thanks!
 
For others who might be wondering here is your mistake: near the end you have
\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|-4n^2+ 10n+ 6\right|
and then immediately have
\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|-(4- \frac{10}{n}- \frac{6}{n^2})\right|
where you have divided by n^2. Obviously you cannot do that! You have essentially factored out "n^2" and should have
\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}n^2\right)\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|4- \frac{10}{n}- \frac{6}{n^2}\right|\right)

The limit on the right is 4 but the limit on the left is \infty. Their product is "\infty".
 
MissP.25_5 said:
That's what I did, only that I use the formula to find R directly, instead of L because R is just 1/L.
Could you show me the steps until you get 0, please? Because as you see mine, I got 4 :/

I think there's some confusion about the ratio test. For a series \sum a_n, the ratio test is lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {a_{n+1}}{a_n}.

This is exactly what I started off with when I saw that you had simplified the series. I start off with

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |

Since this is an absolute value, the -1 terms can be ignored, and simplifying the exponents of the first fraction, you should see

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {z^{4n+6}}{(2n+3)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{z^{4n+2}} |

To simplify, observe that (2n+3)! = (2n+3) \cdot (2n+2) \cdot (2n+1)!, z^{4n+6} = z^{4n} \cdot z^6 and that z^{4n+2} = z^{4n} \cdot z^2.

So we have

lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {z^{4n} \cdot z^6}{(2n+3) \cdot (2n+2) \cdot (2n+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{z^{4n} \cdot z^2} |

The z^{4n}'s and (2n+1)!'s cancel out. You can also factor the remaining z terms. This will leave you with

\frac {z^6}{z^2} lim_{n \to \infty} \frac 1{(2n+3)(2n+2)}.

The limit is 0. Interpret this to mean, it does not matter what values you choose for the variable z. Any real number will work. So we have -\infty < z < \infty, so the radius of convergence is ∞.

If you like my explanation, be sure to "thank" me (hit the Thanks button). I have 0 "thank"s thus far, and I would like some.
 
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