Finding the Radius of Convergence for $zsin(z^2)$ in Maclaurin Series

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the radius of convergence for the function $z \sin(z^2)$ when expanded into a Maclaurin series. Participants are exploring the reasoning behind the assertion that the radius of convergence is infinite.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants suggest using the ratio test to determine the radius of convergence. There are varying interpretations of the steps involved in applying this test, with some expressing confusion over the calculations leading to different results.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their approaches and calculations. Some have provided guidance on how to apply the ratio test, while others are questioning specific steps and assumptions made in the calculations. There is no explicit consensus yet, but productive dialogue is occurring.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the complexities of the ratio test and its application to the series in question. There are indications of confusion regarding the manipulation of limits and factorials, which may affect the understanding of the radius of convergence.

MissP.25_5
Messages
329
Reaction score
0
Hello.
I need explanation on why the answer for this problem is R = ∞.

Here's the question and the solution.

Expand the function into maclaurin series and find the radius of convergence.
$zsin(z^2)$

Solution:
$$zsin(z^2)=z\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{z^{2(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$

Divide both sides by z,

$$sin(z^2)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{z^{2(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)!}$$

So here's the calculation but I don't know how to get the radius of convergence. Answer is ∞.
 
Physics news on Phys.org

Attachments

  • IMG_6667.jpg
    IMG_6667.jpg
    33.8 KB · Views: 444
Last edited:
I think the ratio test should start off like this

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |[/itex]

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.
 
Mogarrr said:
I think the ratio test should start off like this

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |[/itex]

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.

That's what I did, only that I use the formula to find R directly, instead of L because R is just 1/L.
Could you show me the steps until you get 0, please? Because as you see mine, I got 4 :/
 
Mogarrr said:
I think the ratio test should start off like this

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |[/itex]

You should find that the limit is 0, so R = ∞.

Oh, I get it now! I just googled about limits and learned it again. I think I understand now why the lmit is infinity. Thanks!
 
For others who might be wondering here is your mistake: near the end you have
[tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|-4n^2+ 10n+ 6\right|[/tex]
and then immediately have
[tex]\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|-(4- \frac{10}{n}- \frac{6}{n^2})\right|[/tex]
where you have divided by n^2. Obviously you cannot do that! You have essentially factored out "[itex]n^2[/itex]" and should have
[tex]\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}n^2\right)\left(\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|4- \frac{10}{n}- \frac{6}{n^2}\right|\right)[/tex]

The limit on the right is 4 but the limit on the left is [itex]\infty[/itex]. Their product is "[itex]\infty[/itex]".
 
MissP.25_5 said:
That's what I did, only that I use the formula to find R directly, instead of L because R is just 1/L.
Could you show me the steps until you get 0, please? Because as you see mine, I got 4 :/

I think there's some confusion about the ratio test. For a series [itex]\sum a_n[/itex], the ratio test is [itex]lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {a_{n+1}}{a_n}[/itex].

This is exactly what I started off with when I saw that you had simplified the series. I start off with

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {(-1)^{n+1} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2(n+1)+1)})}{(2(n+1)+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(-1)^{n} \cdot z^{2 \cdot (2n+1)}} |[/itex]

Since this is an absolute value, the [itex]-1[/itex] terms can be ignored, and simplifying the exponents of the first fraction, you should see

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {z^{4n+6}}{(2n+3)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{z^{4n+2}} |[/itex]

To simplify, observe that [itex](2n+3)! = (2n+3) \cdot (2n+2) \cdot (2n+1)![/itex], [itex]z^{4n+6} = z^{4n} \cdot z^6[/itex] and that [itex]z^{4n+2} = z^{4n} \cdot z^2[/itex].

So we have

[itex]lim_{n \to \infty} | \frac {z^{4n} \cdot z^6}{(2n+3) \cdot (2n+2) \cdot (2n+1)!} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{z^{4n} \cdot z^2} |[/itex]

The [itex]z^{4n}[/itex]'s and [itex](2n+1)![/itex]'s cancel out. You can also factor the remaining z terms. This will leave you with

[itex]\frac {z^6}{z^2} lim_{n \to \infty} \frac 1{(2n+3)(2n+2)}[/itex].

The limit is 0. Interpret this to mean, it does not matter what values you choose for the variable z. Any real number will work. So we have [itex]-\infty < z < \infty[/itex], so the radius of convergence is ∞.

If you like my explanation, be sure to "thank" me (hit the Thanks button). I have 0 "thank"s thus far, and I would like some.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K