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First order correction of wavefunction in degenerate perturbation

  1. Nov 19, 2014 #1
    In first order correction of wavefunction,


    when any two of the original states degenerate, we replace the two states with their corresponding "good states" to get a new set of "undisturbed" states (ψ(0)m), AND then we determine the first order correction of each of the "good states" using the above expression with respect to the new set of "undisturbed" states. Is this understanding correct?

    (I have read throught several textbooks for this, and have found no clear description.)
    Last edited: Nov 19, 2014
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 24, 2014 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
  4. Nov 25, 2014 #3


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    Staff: Mentor

    If by "good states" you mean the linear combinations obtained from the secluar equations after solving for ##E^{(1)}##, then yes, that is correct.
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