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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Why would the Michelson-Morley experiment be the experiment which proves "length contractions" of measuring rods if everything within the experiment lie on the same frame of reference?

According to Relativity, no contraction should exist at all in this case.

If the mathematical derivative of this constant comes from the "calculated" results of this particular experiment, how can we be certain it isn't flawed?

Andre

According to Relativity, no contraction should exist at all in this case.

If the mathematical derivative of this constant comes from the "calculated" results of this particular experiment, how can we be certain it isn't flawed?

Andre