Fourier transform and inverse transform

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The discussion centers on demonstrating the relationship between a continuous complex-valued function f(x) and its Fourier transform φ(t). The key equation to prove is that if φ is integrable, then f(x) can be expressed as an integral involving φ. An attempt at a solution is presented, but it faces criticism for introducing unnecessary integrals and variables. The suggestion is made to utilize the delta function representation to simplify the proof. A full proof is offered as a potential resource for further understanding.
babyrudin
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Homework Statement



Let f(x) be an integrable complex-valued function on \mathbb{R}. We define the Fourier transform \phi=\mathcal{F}f by
\[\phi(t)=\int_{\infty}^{\infty} e^{ixt} f(x) dx.\]

Show that if f is continuous and if $\phi$ is integrable, then
\[f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt.\]

The Attempt at a Solution



So far I have
\[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{a \to \infty} \int_{-a}^{a} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-a}^a e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{2 \sin((y-x)a)}{y-x} f(y) dy.\]

What to do next?
 
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babyrudin said:

Homework Statement



Let f(x) be an integrable complex-valued function on \mathbb{R}. We define the Fourier transform \phi=\mathcal{F}f by
\[\phi(t)=\int_{\infty}^{\infty} e^{ixt} f(x) dx.\]

Show that if f is continuous and if $\phi$ is integrable, then
\[f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt.\]


The Attempt at a Solution



So far I have
\[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{a \to \infty} \int_{-a}^{a} e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-a}^a e^{-ixt} \phi(t) dt = \lim_{b \to \infty} \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b da \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{2 \sin((y-x)a)}{y-x} f(y) dy.\]

What to do next?
It's not a matter of "what to do next?" but "Why in the world are you doing that?". For one thing, there is no integral from 0 to \infty in what you had before, where are you getting that? And even when you have two integrals, you still only have one variable: dt. You want to show that, for any continuous f (in which case \phi must be integrable)
\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ixt} \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{iut}f(u)dudt= f(x)
 
What your coarse probably wants from you is to use the following,

\delta(t - a) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{i \omega (t -a) } d\omega.
If you want a full but rather simple proof, for a graduate student with a mathematical focus, of this identity I can send it to you.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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