Fourier transform of the ground state hydrogen wave function

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the Fourier transform of the ground state hydrogen wave function, specifically the derivation of the expression Φ(p) from the integral form. The transformation progresses from Φ(p) = ∫ ∫ ∫ exp(-i p r) (Z³/π)¹/² exp(-Zr) sin(θ) dθ dφ r² dr to Φ(p) = 8π¹/² / (p² + Z²)² after several integration steps. Key techniques include the substitution u = cos(θ) and the application of trigonometric identities to simplify the integrals. The discussion also addresses the bounds of integration and the implications of variable substitution.

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Ado
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Hi!

1. Homework Statement

From the website http://www1.uprh.edu/rbaretti/MomentumspaceIntegration8feb2010.htm
we can see the Fourier transform of the ground state hydrogenic wave function :

Φ(p) = ∫ ∫ ∫ exp(-i p r) (Z3/π )1/2 exp(-Zr) sin(θ) dθ dφ r² dr (1.1)

After intregation of the variable φ we have :

Φ(p) = 2π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ ∫ { exp(-i pr cos(θ ) sin(θ) dθ } exp(-Zr) r² dr (1.2)

and next :

Φ(p) = 2π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ { 2 sin(pr) /pr } exp(-Zr) r² dr (1.3)

= 4π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ {sin(pr) /p} exp(-Zr) r dr

= 8 π1/2/ Z5/2 /( p² + Z² )²

And I want to understand these different steps..

Homework Equations



I don't understand the relations used between (1.1), (1.2) and (1.3) :
(1.1) to (1.2) new cos(θ ) appears
(1.2) to (1.3) sin(pr)/pr appears

The Attempt at a Solution



Can you explain me what happen between (1.1) and (1.3) ?

Tanks in advance !
 
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In 1.1 we have exp(-ip.r). p.r is the dot product of two vectors, whose value is pr*cosθ, where θ is the angle between the vectors. I suppose in p space, which I'm not familiar with, this angle must be equal to the coordinate θ. There is a bracket missing in 1.2, which should read
Φ(p) = 2π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ ∫ { exp(-i pr cos(θ) ) sin(θ) dθ } exp(-Zr) r² dr (1.2)
This can be integrated over θ by using the substitution u = cosθ and the identity eix = cosx + i*sinx, to give 1.3
 
Thanks for your reply mjc123 !

I had applied your recommendation and I find the result in (1.3) :wink:

If I used the substitution u = cosθ, I must then integrate between 1 and -1 (cos(0) = 1 and cos(pi) = -1).

I put du = -sinθdθ, so :

exp(-i pr cos(θ) ) sin(θ) dθ = -exp(-i pr u) du = - cos(-pru)du + isin(pru)du

The complex term disappears with the integration and

1-1 - cos(-pru) du = 2sin(pr)/pr

I have just a question about the bounds of integration. At the beginning, we integrate between 0 and pi and with the substitution, between 1 and -1. The order of these bounds is important because if we integrate du between -1 and 1 we would have a negative term. My question is probably stupid but why are we constrained at the beginning to integrate between 0 and pi and not between pi and 0 ??

Thanks in advance !
 
A mathematician could no doubt give you a better formal explanation, but I would say basically: because the increment is dθ. You could also integrate from pi to 0 with increment -dθ.
If you think of it in terms of the area under a curve, for example, suppose you have a function y which is positive over the range x = 0 to 1, and you want the area under this curve, which of course is positive. This is ∫01ydx. We could also go from x = 1 to 0 in increments of -dx, and get ∫10y(-dx) = ∫10(-y)dx = ∫01ydx. Or think of the function y as the differential of the integral, i.e. the rate of change of the area with x. This is obviously positive (or negative if y is negative) with increasing x, i.e. positive dx. So we integrate y by dx over the interval 0 to 1, not 1 to 0. However, if we do a coordinate transformation, we must keep the initial and final limits in their transformed form, and transform dx correctly, so if we made the substitution u = e-x, we would integrate -y(u)/u*du from 1 to e-1.
Hope this is not too rubbish.
 
Thanks a lot for your explication mjc123 and thanks for your help!
 
Ado said:
Hi!

1. Homework Statement

From the website http://www1.uprh.edu/rbaretti/MomentumspaceIntegration8feb2010.htm
we can see the Fourier transform of the ground state hydrogenic wave function :

Φ(p) = ∫ ∫ ∫ exp(-i p r) (Z3/π )1/2 exp(-Zr) sin(θ) dθ dφ r² dr (1.1)

After intregation of the variable φ we have :

Φ(p) = 2π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ ∫ { exp(-i pr cos(θ ) sin(θ) dθ } exp(-Zr) r² dr (1.2)

and next :

Φ(p) = 2π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ { 2 sin(pr) /pr } exp(-Zr) r² dr (1.3)

= 4π (Z3/π )1/2 ∫ {sin(pr) /p} exp(-Zr) r dr

= 8 π1/2/ Z5/2 /( p² + Z² )²

And I want to understand these different steps..

Homework Equations



I don't understand the relations used between (1.1), (1.2) and (1.3) :
(1.1) to (1.2) new cos(θ ) appears
(1.2) to (1.3) sin(pr)/pr appears

The Attempt at a Solution



Can you explain me what happen between (1.1) and (1.3) ?

Tanks in advance !
How was the Sin integral calculated in the last step?
 
loued said:
How was the Sin integral calculated in the last step?
:welcome:

Note that this homework is from over four years ago. Hopefully Ado has graduated by now.
 
Or at least turned it in!
 
  • Haha
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loued said:
How was the Sin integral calculated in the last step?
Use the fact that sin(pr) is the imaginary part of eipr.
 
  • #10
Or integrate by parts.
 

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