Proof of allowed and forbidden electron state transition.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of allowed and forbidden electron state transitions in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the computation of the expectation value of the electron's position vector using wave functions for initial and final states. The original poster attempts to establish the conditions under which a transition from a state with angular momentum quantum number L=1 and magnetic quantum number mL=0 to a state with L=0 is allowed.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to compute integrals involving wave functions and question the values of quantum numbers for the final state. There is uncertainty about the specific wave function for the L=0 state and the implications of the quantum numbers n and mL. Some participants explore the significance of the radial and angular components of the integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing insights and clarifying concepts related to the integrals involved in the transition. There is a recognition of the importance of ensuring that the integrals over r, θ, and φ are non-zero to validate the transition. Guidance has been offered regarding the orthonormality of spherical harmonics and the role of the radial wave function.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem statement does not specify the values of n for the initial or final states, leading to some ambiguity in determining the wave functions. There is also a focus on the integrals being computed over three-dimensional space, which adds complexity to the analysis.

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Homework Statement


One way to establish which transitions are forbidden is to compute the expectation value of the electron’s position vector r using wave functions for both the initial and final states in the transition. That is, compute ∫ΨfrΨidτ where τ represents an integral over all space, and Ψf and Ψi are the final and initial states. If the value of the integral is zero, then the transition is forbidden.

Use this procedure to show that a transition from a L=1, mL=0 to a L=0 state is allowed.

Homework Equations


∫ΨfrΨidτ
R21(r)=Are^(-r/2a), A=1/(a^(5/2)2√6)
Y10(θ,φ)=1/2√(3/π)cosθ

The Attempt at a Solution


Just plug in values and solve. Easy!

But wait, I don't know what ψf is. The first state is the 2p state so I can find it's wave equation but the L=0 state has no other given quantum numbers.

I know that n>0, L<n and |mL|≤L so from what is given, the final state is n>0, L=0 and mL≤0.

So what do I do about the value of n and mL? How do I find the wave equation for the final state?
 
Last edited:
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If L = 0, then there is only one possible value for mL.
 
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Oops. |mL|≤L, L=0, mL=0

I believe this would be the 3s state. Time to solve the integral.
 
Last edited:
Send BoBs said:
Oops. |mL|≤L, L=0, mL=0
Yes

I believe this would be the 3s state. Time to solve the integral.
Why would n = 3? The problem statement in the first post doesn't give any information about the initial or final value of n. I believe you only need to worry about the angular integrals over ##\theta## and ##\varphi##.
 
TSny said:
Yes

Why would n = 3? The problem statement in the first post doesn't give any information about the initial or final value of n. I believe you only need to worry about the angular integrals over ##\theta## and ##\varphi##.

I believe the integral over r is also important here since the integral is over 3D space. So r ##\theta## and ##\varphi## are all important. I was going into this with the assumption that ψ(r,##\theta##,##\varphi##)=Rnl(r)Ylml(##\theta##,##\varphi##) would be how I describe each states wave equation. Of course this requires me take the quantum number n from a given chart of number configurations and results in a rather lengthy integral that already makes me think my method is wrong.

But why would the radial wave function not play a part here?
 
Send BoBs said:
But why would the radial wave function not play a part here?
There is no particular reason why the integral over r would be zero, so you can take it to be non-zero. In contrast, the integral over θ, φ can be shown to be zero except for special cases.
 
I think I have a better understanding now.

If I can show that each r,##\theta##,##\varphi## integral ≠ 0 then the transition should be valid. I know that the radial wave integral will be some non zero value and the ##\varphi## integral would just be 2π so I should be able to compute the ##\theta## integral and have my answer.
 
Send BoBs said:
If I can show that each r,##\theta##,##\varphi## integral ≠ 0 then the transition should be valid. I know that the radial wave integral will be some non zero value and the ##\varphi## integral would just be 2π so I should be able to compute the ##\theta## integral and have my answer.
That sounds good.
 
Send BoBs said:
I think I have a better understanding now.

If I can show that each r,##\theta##,##\varphi## integral ≠ 0 then the transition should be valid. I know that the radial wave integral will be some non zero value and the ##\varphi## integral would just be 2π so I should be able to compute the ##\theta## integral and have my answer.
And don't forget that the spherical harmonics are orthonormal ...
 
  • #10
kuruman said:
And don't forget that the spherical harmonics are orthonormal ...
The integral includes ##\mathbf{r}##.
 
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  • #11
DrClaude said:
The integral includes ##\mathbf{r}##.
Yes, of course. Thanks for the reminder.
 

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