Fourier transform of the linear function

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The discussion centers on the Fourier transform of the linear function, specifically the integral of x multiplied by the exponential function. The result is expressed as δ(k)/ik, which raises questions about its validity due to being intrinsically undefined. A handwaving approach suggests using differentiation of the delta function, leading to the expression -2πi(d/dk)δ(k). Participants note the appearance of a minus sign in the differentiation process, which is necessary to align with the original integral. The conversation highlights the complexities and nuances of interpreting the Fourier transform in this context.
Irid
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Hello,
I was wondering if one can give meaning to the Fourier transform of the linear function:

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x e^{ikx}\, dx

I found that it is \frac{\delta(k)}{ik}, does this make sense?
 
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This expression doesn't make sense since it's intrinsically undefined. A handwaving way is
\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-\mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-2 \pi \mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \delta(k).
 
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vanhees71 said:
This expression doesn't make sense since it's intrinsically undefined. A handwaving way is
\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-\mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-2 \pi \mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \delta(k).
Hmm.. seems to make sense. Why is there a minus sign popping up?
 
d/dk(exp(ikx)) = ixexp(ikx). you need -i to get 1 for the original integral.
 
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