Fourier transform of the linear function

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SUMMARY

The Fourier transform of the linear function, represented by the integral \(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x e^{ikx}\, dx\), results in the expression \(-2\pi i \frac{d}{dk} \delta(k)\). This derivation involves recognizing that the integral is intrinsically undefined, and the presence of the minus sign is necessary to maintain the integrity of the original integral. The discussion highlights the relationship between differentiation and the Dirac delta function in the context of Fourier transforms.

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Irid
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Hello,
I was wondering if one can give meaning to the Fourier transform of the linear function:

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x e^{ikx}\, dx

I found that it is \frac{\delta(k)}{ik}, does this make sense?
 
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This expression doesn't make sense since it's intrinsically undefined. A handwaving way is
\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-\mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-2 \pi \mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \delta(k).
 
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vanhees71 said:
This expression doesn't make sense since it's intrinsically undefined. A handwaving way is
\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-\mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \exp(\mathrm{i} k x)=-2 \pi \mathrm{i} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} k} \delta(k).
Hmm.. seems to make sense. Why is there a minus sign popping up?
 
d/dk(exp(ikx)) = ixexp(ikx). you need -i to get 1 for the original integral.
 
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