Frequency of oscillating electric dipole in uniform field without using diff eq

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around finding the frequency of oscillation for an electric dipole in a uniform electric field without resorting to differential equations. Participants suggest using the small angle approximation for sine, leading to a simplified equation resembling that of a simple harmonic oscillator. One user proposes an alternative method involving the integration of torque over time to determine angular momentum changes, but concerns arise about the feasibility of this approach. Ultimately, the consensus is that recognizing the form of the differential equation allows for deducing frequency without explicitly solving it. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the underlying physics rather than performing complex calculations.
DocZaius
Messages
365
Reaction score
11

Homework Statement



Electric dipole makes small angle with uniform electric field. Find the frequency of the oscillation using dipole moment p, moment of inertia I, and field magnitude E.

Homework Equations


Torque=I*(angular acceleration)=I*(theta)''
Torque=p*E*sin(theta)


The Attempt at a Solution



What I did was set PE*sin(theta)=I*(theta)'' But then I need to solve a differential equation which is absolutley not supposed to be required for this class.

Is there a way to find this frequency without solving a differential equation?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You forgot a minus sign. When the angle is small, you can use the approximation \sin \theta \cong \theta, which gives you
I\ddot{\theta} = -pE\theta
Now compare this to the equation of motion for a simple harmonic oscillator.
m\ddot{x} = -kx
where the angular frequency is given by \omega =\sqrt{k/m}.
 
Aren't you technically solving a differential equation by telling me the angular frequency of a simple harmonic oscillator?

I was thinking of an approach where I would integrate torque over time (rather than angle) to get a change in angular momentum, then use that to determine at what point in its cycle the oscillator is, since when that change is zero (after a non-zero time), whatever time passed to reach zero angular momentum would be half the period. Is this feasible?

Thanks for your reply, btw.
 
Perhaps. You could try it and see how it works out, but I think you'll run into a problem trying to integrate the righthand side of the equation since you don't know how θ varies as a function of time.

I think what's expected is that you're supposed to recognize the form of the resulting differential equation and from that deduce what the frequency and solutions are. You don't actually have to solve the equation, per se. You just essentially follow a recipe and write down what the answers should be.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
14
Views
1K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
4K
Replies
1
Views
3K