Galois Theory- number of automorphisms of a splitting field

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the degrees of splitting extensions for the polynomial x^3 - 1 over Q and finding the number of automorphisms of its splitting field. The participant, Zoe, identifies that the degree of the extension is 2 and proposes that there is one automorphism, specifically the mapping from exp(i*PI/3) to exp(-i*PI/3). The discussion emphasizes the application of the tower theorem and the isomorphism of fields generated by roots of irreducible polynomials.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Galois Theory concepts
  • Familiarity with splitting fields and their properties
  • Knowledge of the tower theorem in field extensions
  • Basic proficiency in complex numbers and exponential functions
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  • Study the properties of Galois groups and their relation to field extensions
  • Learn about the computation of degrees of splitting fields for various polynomials
  • Explore the concept of automorphisms in the context of Galois Theory
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra and Galois Theory, as well as educators seeking to deepen their understanding of field extensions and automorphisms.

Zoe-b
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Homework Statement


The question says:

Find the degrees of the splitting extensions of the following polynomials, and show that
in each case the number of automorphisms of the splitting field is at most the degree
of the extension.

i) x^3 - 1 over Q
(3 others)


Homework Equations



tower theorem
the fact that if f is irreducible over K with splitting field L, and a,b are roots of f, then K(a) is isomorphic to K(b), so there is an automorphism i:K -> K with i(a) = b

The Attempt at a Solution


Just a bit confused by the question- does it mean the number of automorphisms that fix the original field K?? I'm fine with finding the degree of the extension its the second bit that's new to me.

I *think* for the example shown, the degree of the extension is 2 and there is only one automorphism, that taking exp(i*PI/3) to exp(-i*PI/3). Clearly 1 is less than or equal to 2 but I'm not sure a) if this is right or b) how to generalise this concept to the other examples.

Thanks,
Zoe
 
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Sorry for the bump but I'm still stuck on this- can anyone help?
Thanks
Zoe
 

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