harrylin
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What you wrote appears to introduce just the inconsistency of definitions that we are trying to avoid.A.T. said:What exactly is different in that quote, compared to what I wrote?
What you wrote appears to introduce just the inconsistency of definitions that we are trying to avoid.A.T. said:What exactly is different in that quote, compared to what I wrote?
Once more, what most matters for physics is the methods of calculation; and Landau gives a good example of vocabulary that is reasonably theory neutral.DaleSpam said:The difference is if you consider there to be a fictitious force which is locally canceling the real force (Newton) or if you consider there to be no force locally, either real or fictitious (Einstein). The former represents a convenient non inertial frame and the latter represents an inertial frame.
"He even applied this reasoning to the entire solar system, in order to justify treating it as an isolated system: if there were any outside force acting on it, it must have been acting more or less equally and in parallel directions on all parts of the system.I will have to read the rest of the reference, but at least the section 2.6 does not seem to support your usage.
That doesn't answer the question how what I wrote contradicts the Landau quote. And I'm not trying to avoid anything, but clarify by acknowledging conceptual differences.harrylin said:What you wrote appears to introduce just the inconsistency of definitions that we are trying to avoid.
Right - Alonso&Finn neatly avoided that issue by simply writing the equation as coordinate acceleration relative to a rotating frame. No need at all to invoke a "fictitious force".vanhees71 said:I'd also avoid the expression "fictitious force". It's somewhat misleading. What you do is to write down an equation of motion of a particle in Newtonian physics using a non-inertial frame. From the kinetic part you move everything to the right-hand side, so that the equation reads
$$m \ddot{\vec{x}}=\vec{F}(\vec{x},\dot{\vec{x}}),$$
and then you call the right-hand side "force", although it's not precisely a force but contains parts from the kinetic term (unfortunately even giving names like Coriolis and centrifugal force), which go away when writing the equation in an inertial frame.
Everything becomes very easy when using Hamilton's principle, which is form invariant under arbitrary point transformations (change of generalized coordinates) in the Lagrangian or even under the larger group of canonical transformations in phase space (symplectomorphisms).
Again you put words in my mouth that I did not say ("not according to" is not synonymous with "contradict"!). In the cited part they completely avoid the use of "inertial frame" which different people may interpret differently; rather they use terms that are understood the same by everyone.A.T. said:That doesn't answer the question how what I wrote contradicts the Landau quote. And I'm not trying to avoid anything, but clarify by acknowledging conceptual differences.
If neither that quote nor the Newton quote use the term "inertial frame", then there can obviously be no contradiction in how they use it. That doesn't change the fact that the term is being used differently in classical Mechanics and GR.harrylin said:they completely avoid the use of "inertial frame"
Not sure if L & L cover this later, but you can do much more than that. For an inertial particle (free fall, geodesic), you can introduce inertial coordinates that are spatially local but temporally global. That is, in mathematical terms, the metric remains diag(1,-1,-1,-1) and the connection components vanish, at the spatial origin, for all time. These are Fermi-Normal coordinates.harrylin said:As far as I know, "inertial frame" was not part of the vocabulary at that time, and it is besides the point. A group of free falling bodies towards a planet could according to Newton's mechanics be used for local calculations as if they are in straight uniform motion, discounting the acceleration from the planet's gravitation. On that point there is no disagreement between Newton and Einstein.
PS compare with modern usage:
"in a gravitational field the particle moves so that its world point moves along an extremal or, as it is called, a geodesic [..]; however, since in the presence of the gravitational field space-time is not galilean, this line is not a "straight line", and the real spatial motion of the particle is neither uniform nor rectilinear. [..]by a suitable choice of the coordinate system one can always [turn] an arbitrary point of pace-time [into] a locally-inertial system of reference [which] means the elimination of the gravitational field in the given infinitesimal element of space-time"
- Landau & Lifchitz (Fields)
Once more, that depends on the definitions. In their "mechanics" book, L&L describe "inertial frames" as "Galilean" reference systems (it's even the term they use in the older English version) and as you saw, they state in their "fields" book that the real spatial motion of the particle is neither uniform nor rectilinear while you state that it is actually considered inertial. In order to distinguish the concepts, they use "local inertial frames".A.T. said:If neither that quote nor the Newton quote use the term "inertial frame", then there can obviously be no contradiction in how they use it. That doesn't change the fact that the term is being used differently in classical Mechanics and GR.
According to your interpretation of their definition, which frame is inertial:harrylin said:In their "mechanics" book, L&L describe "inertial frames" as...
I would have to say that parts of this wording are not modern, common usage. Especially e.g. "real spatial motion" is a concept with no plausible definition. Neither can "straight line" be defined in some way other than geodesic to make the statement that a geodesic is not straight. I would call modern books on GR as e.g. Wald, Carroll, Straumann.harrylin said:As far as I know, "inertial frame" was not part of the vocabulary at that time, and it is besides the point. A group of free falling bodies towards a planet could according to Newton's mechanics be used for local calculations as if they are in straight uniform motion, discounting the acceleration from the planet's gravitation. On that point there is no disagreement between Newton and Einstein.
PS compare with modern usage:
"in a gravitational field the particle moves so that its world point moves along an extremal or, as it is called, a geodesic [..]; however, since in the presence of the gravitational field space-time is not galilean, this line is not a "straight line", and the real spatial motion of the particle is neither uniform nor rectilinear. [..]by a suitable choice of the coordinate system one can always [turn] an arbitrary point of pace-time [into] a locally-inertial system of reference [which] means the elimination of the gravitational field in the given infinitesimal element of space-time"
- Landau & Lifchitz (Fields)
I agree, that is what matters most. The disagreement is (at this level) a purely semantic one. The semantics are different, so I tried to capture that.harrylin said:Once more, what most matters for physics is the methods of calculation; and Landau gives a good example of vocabulary that is reasonably theory neutral.
Agreed.DaleSpam said:That seems right to me. The only minor detail is that I wouldn't say that a physical object is a reference frame, but I realize that saying things like "the frame of the lab" or "the frame where the lab is at rest" makes the wording more cumbersome.
PAllen said:...
Relativistic Terminology:
1) A lab sitting on Earth is an accelerated frame. It can be made part of some natural coordinate system that is asymptotically Minkowski at infinity because the spacetime is asymptotically flat. There are several such natural coordinates (e.g. standard exterior Schwarzschild, isotropic exterior Schwarzschild, etc.).
...
PAllen said:Fermi-Normal coordinates in which the metric is almost Minkowski for the lab (exactly at e.g. lab center), for all time, but there are time independent, nearly constant, connection coefficients.
I'd say, a reference frame is always determined by some physical object. How else should it be realized?DaleSpam said:That seems right to me. The only minor detail is that I wouldn't say that a physical object is a reference frame, but I realize that saying things like "the frame of the lab" or "the frame where the lab is at rest" makes the wording more cumbersome.
No, g00 will take the approximate form 1 + 2a z, which is 1 for z=0. Note:PeterDonis said:I assume that by "almost Minkowski" you mean "Minkowski except for the extra term in ##g_{00}##", correct?
Consider an otherwise isolated system of two equal-mass classical charges. What would you consider to be the most natural reference frame? I would consider the inertial center of momentum frame most natural, not one of the non inertial frames attached to the charges.vanhees71 said:I'd say, a reference frame is always determined by some physical object. How else should it be realized?
PAllen said:g00 will take the approximate form 1 + 2a z, which is 1 for z=0
Sure! But to realize such a frame you need indeed some materialization of it, i.e., a measurement apparatus prepared such that it is at rest relative to the center-of-momentum frame, which then should be an inertial frame (which of course can be tested either as soon as you have materially realized this frame).DaleSpam said:Consider an otherwise isolated system of two equal-mass classical charges. What would you consider to be the most natural reference frame? I would consider the inertial center of momentum frame most natural, not one of the non inertial frames attached to the charges.
Not sure what you mean by "realize a reference frame". But to define a reference frame, one certainly doesn't need any physical object to be at rest in that frame.vanhees71 said:Sure! But to realize such a frame you need indeed some materialization of it, i.e., a measurement apparatus prepared such that it is at rest relative to the center-of-momentum frame
No, you don't. We know quite well the solar system's center of momentum frame despite not having any measurement apparatus at rest relative to the frame. Similarly, the GPS Earth centered inertial frame is extremely well realized without any at-rest measurement apparatus.vanhees71 said:to realize such a frame you need indeed some materialization of it, i.e., a measurement apparatus prepared such that it is at rest relative to the center-of-momentum frame.
I don't think that anyone here is making that mistake. However, avoiding this mistake does not require making the alternate mistake of saying that a physical object "is" a related mathematical quantity.vanhees71 said:As theoretical physicists we often forget that the world does not consist of quadruples of numbers (coordinates)
Precisely. This can be done because the frame is not the material object, it is a mathematical quantity.vanhees71 said:from which you can evaluate the coordinates in whatever other frame you want
One can define a reference frame, without any physical objects at rest in that frame, simply by stating that the frame moves a velocity v relative to some physical object.vanhees71 said:Then explain to me, how to define a frame in practice without realizing it somehow as a material object.
The way GPS does it is a good example. Do you not understand that there is no material object in the GPS system which "is" the ECI frame?vanhees71 said:Then explain to me, how to define a frame in practice without realizing it somehow as a material object.